Which one is not correctly matched?
A. Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B. Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C. conscience Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D. (d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Answer: C
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A. Prime Minister
B. Vice- President
C. Chief Minister
D. Chief Justice
Answer: A
A. 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B. 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C. 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D. 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Answer: C
Match the following:
A. Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B. Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C. In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D. In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Answer: C
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Answer: D
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Answer: A
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A. It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B. It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C. It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D. It allocates seats in the council of states.
Answer: D
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A. Fundamental rights
B. DPSP
C. List of languages recognised by the constitution
D. Number of states and UTS
Answer: C
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A. 2nd schedule
B. 5th schedule
C. 8th schedule
D. 10th schedule
Answer: D
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 11
Answer: A
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Answer: C
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A. The President
B. The prime minister
C. The chief justice of India
D. Council of ministers
Answer: A
The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A. France
B. USA
C. United Kingdom
D. None of these
Answer: B
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A. The election commission
B. President
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Prime minister
Answer: B
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A. Part IX
B. Part IX-A
C. Part X
D. Part X-A
Answer: B
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental rights
C. Fundamental duties
D. Directive principles of state policy
Answer: A
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
A. The President
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D. Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Answer: D
Preamble to the constitution of India:
A. is not a Part of the constitution.
B. Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
C. Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D. Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Answer: C
The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
A. A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B. A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C. A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D. Not a Part of the constitution.
Answer: B
The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
A. USA
B. United Nations
C. United Kingdom
D. Ireland
Answer: D
Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
A. Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B. Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C. Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D. Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Answer: A
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A. Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B. Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C. Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D. Security of service to government servants .
Answer: C
Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A. 1st Amendment Act
B. 24th Amendment Act
C. 42nd Amendment Act
D. 44th Amendment Act
Answer: C
Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Never
Answer: C
The word secular denotes:
A. Keeping away from all religions.
B. Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C. Belief in one god
D. Practicing different religions
Answer: B
The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A. Prohibit concentration of wealth
B. Distribute equitably the natural resources
C. Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D. That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Answer: D
Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A. Against arbitrary legislative action.
B. Against arbitrary executive action.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: C
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A. I only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: B
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A. Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B. Certiorari & Mandamus.
C. Prohibition & Mandamus.
D. Prohibition & Certiorari.
Answer: B
The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A. I only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses.
3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. I only
Answer: B
The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Answer: A
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
A. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special majority.
B. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
C. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D. None of these
Answer: A
When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides that
A. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Answer: C
With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
A. The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
B. The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
C. The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
D. The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
Answer: C
The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B
The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
A. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
Answer: D
As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is concerned with
A. to discover new rules
B. to reflect all the rules already known
C. to derive rules from authority and apply them to problems
D. logic.
Answer: B
Who said jurisprudence is formal science of positive law?
A. Bentham
B. Stone
C. Austin
D. Holland
Answer: D
Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?
A. Bentham
B. Stone
C. Austin
D. Holland
Answer: B
Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?
A. R. Dworkin
B. Hart
C. Bentham
D. Tom Bingham
Answer: A
The concept of law depends largely on the:
A. social values
B. accepted norms
C. behavioural pattern of the particular society at a given time
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Law consists of social norms which are:
A. coercive
B. ethical
C. non-coercive
D. religious
Answer: A
Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
A. Salmond
B. Holland
C. Gray
D. Paton
Answer: A
The expression ‘law’ in jurisprudence is mostly used to denote
A. Positive law
B. Negative law
C. Fundamental legal principles
D. Legal systems
Answer: C
Austin's law is:
A. command of sovereign
B. command of God
C. command of people
D. command of constitution
Answer: A
Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A. Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B. Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is done with a feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D. If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in that society.
Answer: C
Mark the incorrect statement:
A. Law do not always command .but confers privileges also e.g., Right to make a will.
B. The notion of command is applicable to modern social/welfare legislation.
C. Austin's notion that sovereignty indivisible is falsified by federal constitutions e.g., India, USA
D. Austin's insistence on sanctions as a mark of law conceals and distorts the real character and functions of law in a community.
Answer: B
Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-optional character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation, legislation and adjudication?
A. Hart
B. Salmond
C. Kelsen
D. Austin
Answer: A
Which of the following is not a statement from Hart's theory?
A. Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
B. The union of the primary and secondary rules constitute the core of a legal system.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is done with a feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
D. The law is a normative and not a natural science.
Answer: D
Mark the incorrect statement:
A. Positive law is made by sovereign and positive morality not by it.
B. Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by God.
C. Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the people.
D. None of the above
Answer: B
The pure theory of law advocated by Kelsen implies that:
A. a theory which excludes everything which is strictly not law
B. a theory which includes everything which is law.
C. a theory which includes everything which is strictly law.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Mark the incorrect option:
A. The province of jurisprudence determined - Austin
B. The concept of law - Hart
C. Vienna school of legal thought - Kelsen
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
Mark the correct statement:
A. Natural law approach is not realistic and practical approach.
B. Natural law principles have inspired positive law, constitution and international law.
C. Naturalists bid to introduce moral element into a criterion of identification and laws have the effect of founding law on the value judgement.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
The philosophical school seeks to investigate:
A. quest of the law
B. purpose for which a particular law has been enacted
C. the philosophical basis of the law
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of individual but by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This statement belongs to:
A. Analytical school
B. Historical school
C. Sociological school
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Mark the correct option:
A. Sources of law - Salmond
B. Nature and sources of law - Gray
C. (c) Des recht des besitzes - Savigny
D. All of the above
Answer: D
A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient under the English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A. is same
B. does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its validity
C. antiquity is not essential
D. None of the above
Answer: B
The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A. interpretation of statute
B. construction of statute
C. both (a) and (b)
D. harmonization of statute
Answer: A
It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature should not delegate to a subordinate body the power make rules on:
A. technical matter
B. policy matter
C. matter of inclusion and exclusion
D. date of commencement of a statute
Answer: B
Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated legislation?
A. Parliamentary control
B. Judicial control
C. Publication of delegated legislation
D. Registration of delegated legislation
Answer: D
Mark the incorrect option:
A. Literal rule - grammatical or plain meaning rule
B. Golden rule - purpose of legislation
C. Harmonious construction rule - social welfare legislation
D. Literal rule - strict interpretation
Answer: C
Which rule of interpretation is employed in the social welfare legislation?
A. Literal rule
B. Golden rule
C. Harmonious construction rule
D. Liberal or beneficial construction rule
Answer: D
Which rule of construction is applied in the construction of penal statutes?
A. Literal rule
B. Golden rule
C. Harmonious construction rule
D. Liberal rule
Answer: A
The maxim Ejusdem generis means:
A. of the same kind or nature
B. when particular words are followed by general words, the general words are constructed as limited to things of the same kind as specified in the particular words
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Which of the following is an internal aid to construction of a statute?
A. Title
B. Preamble
C. Proviso and explanation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
The maxim Generalia specialibus non deterogant means:
A. a general later law does not abrogate an earlier special law by mere implication.
B. a general later law abrogates an earlier special law by mere implication.
C. a special later law does not abrogate an earlier general law by mere implication.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
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