B. Null and void
C. An illegality
D. Voidable
Ans : D
Q - 402 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings!
A. Mehta Vs. Union of India.
B. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India.
C. A.K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India.
D. Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain.
Ans : C
Q - 403 : Find Answer : The writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is
A. an absence of jurisdiction or abuse of jurisdiction.
B. violation of principles of natural justice and frau
C. any kind of contravention of the law the lan
D. all of the above
Ans : A
Q - 404 : Find Answer : The writ of certiorari necessarily implies that
A. An error of fact, cannot correcte
B. An error of law apparent on the face of the record, can be correcte
C. Violation of natural justice.
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Q - 405 : Assertion
(A) : The principles of natural justice ensures fair hearing. Reason
(R) : It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
A. Codes: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans : A
Q - 406 : Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are:
A. Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
B. Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
C. Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo-warranto.
D. Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo-warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans : D
Q - 407 : A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
A. Legal representation
B. Cross examination
C. Reasoned decision
D. All of the above
Ans : C
Q - 408 : Judicial review of an administrative action means
A. Review by the Parliament
B. Review by the Government
C. Review by the Legislative Assembly
D. Review by the Judiciary
Ans : D
Q - 409 : Find
Ans :
A. Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
B. Administrative law is a branch of private law.
C. Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
D. Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.
Ans : A
Q - 410 : The first committee to recommend for the establishment of an ombudsman type of institution in India was:
A. Gorwala Committee
B. Santhanam Committee
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans : B
Q - 411 : The Chairman of which of the following Parliamentary Committees is invariably from the members of ruling party?
A. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. Public Accounts Committee
C. Estimates Committee
D. Committee on Delegated Legislation
Ans : C
Q - 412 : The judicial control over administrative acts emanate from the Doctrine of :
A. Separation of powers
B. Judicial review
C. Rule of law
D. Delegated legislation
Ans : B
Q - 413 : The committee on Public Undertakings were set up on the recommendation of:
A. Administrative Reforms Commission
B. Lanka Sundaran
C. Krishna Menon Committee
D. Chagla Commission
Ans : C
Q - 414 : The chairman of which of the following committee is generally from the opposition party?
A. Estimates Committee
B. Committee on Public Undertaking
C. Public Accounts Committee
D. Committee on Assurances
Ans : C
Q - 415 : Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House/Lok Sabha?
A. Committee on Assurances
B. Committee on Delegated Legislation
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Estimates Committee
Ans : D
Q - 416 : Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:
A. Administrative Reforms Commission of India
B. Gorwala Report
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Santhanam Committee
Ans : D
Q - 417 : The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:
A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. Punjab
D. Maharashtra
Ans : D
Q - 418 : In the context of judicial control over administration, malfeasance stands for:
A. Error of Law
B. Error of fact-finding
C. Abuse of authority
D. Error of procedure
Ans : C
Q - 419 : Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Central Bureau of Investigation - 1941
B. Special Police Establishment - 1941
C. Prevention of Corruption Act - 1947
D. Central Vigilance Commission – 1964
Ans : C
Q - 420 : Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans : A
Q - 406 : Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are:
A. Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
B. Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
C. Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo-warranto.
D. Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo-warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans : D
Q - 407 : A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
A. Legal representation
B. Cross examination
C. Reasoned decision
D. All of the above
Ans : C
Q - 408 : Judicial review of an administrative action means
A. Review by the Parliament
B. Review by the Government
C. Review by the Legislative Assembly
D. Review by the Judiciary
Ans : D
Q - 409 : Find
Ans :
A. Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
B. Administrative law is a branch of private law.
C. Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
D. Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.
Ans : A
Q - 410 : The first committee to recommend for the establishment of an ombudsman type of institution in India was:
A. Gorwala Committee
B. Santhanam Committee
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans : B
Q - 411 : The Chairman of which of the following Parliamentary Committees is invariably from the members of ruling party?
A. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. Public Accounts Committee
C. Estimates Committee
D. Committee on Delegated Legislation
Ans : C
Q - 412 : The judicial control over administrative acts emanate from the Doctrine of :
A. Separation of powers
B. Judicial review
C. Rule of law
D. Delegated legislation
Ans : B
Q - 413 : The committee on Public Undertakings were set up on the recommendation of:
A. Administrative Reforms Commission
B. Lanka Sundaran
C. Krishna Menon Committee
D. Chagla Commission
Ans : C
Q - 414 : The chairman of which of the following committee is generally from the opposition party?
A. Estimates Committee
B. Committee on Public Undertaking
C. Public Accounts Committee
D. Committee on Assurances
Ans : C
Q - 415 : Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House/Lok Sabha?
A. Committee on Assurances
B. Committee on Delegated Legislation
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Estimates Committee
Ans : D
Q - 416 : Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:
A. Administrative Reforms Commission of India
B. Gorwala Report
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Santhanam Committee
Ans : D
Q - 417 : The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:
A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. Punjab
D. Maharashtra
Ans : D
Q - 418 : In the context of judicial control over administration, malfeasance stands for:
A. Error of Law
B. Error of fact-finding
C. Abuse of authority
D. Error of procedure
Ans : C
Q - 419 : Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Central Bureau of Investigation - 1941
B. Special Police Establishment - 1941
C. Prevention of Corruption Act - 1947
D. Central Vigilance Commission – 1964
Ans : C
Q - 420 : Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?
1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas High Courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. High Courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of Injunction.
3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High Courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4 only
Ans : B
Q - 421 : In countries with Parliament, like India legislative control over administration is considerably reduced and restricted effectiveness due to which of the follow reasons?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4 only
Ans : B
Q - 421 : In countries with Parliament, like India legislative control over administration is considerably reduced and restricted effectiveness due to which of the follow reasons?
1. The expansion in the volume and variety of administrative work.
2. Frequent use of Guillitone.
3. The large size of the legislature.
4. The members of the legislature are laymen.
5. The financial committees do post mortem work.
A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans : D
Q - 422 : Which of the following are the means of judicial control over administration?
A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans : D
Q - 422 : Which of the following are the means of judicial control over administration?
1. Suits against government
2. Judicial review
3. Rule of Law
4. Statutory appeal
5. Droit administratiff
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 3 and 5
Ans : B
Q - 423 : Which of the following are the limitations of judicial control over administration?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 3 and 5
Ans : B
Q - 423 : Which of the following are the limitations of judicial control over administration?
1. Its intervention takes place only when it is sought by the affected person.
2. It is a post mortem control.
3. Statutory limitations.
4. Error of Fact-Finding.
5. Technical nature of the administrative activities.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans : D
Q - 424 : Which of the following are incorrect statements about the Central Vigilance Commission?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans : D
Q - 424 : Which of the following are incorrect statements about the Central Vigilance Commission?
1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms Commission.
2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister.
3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of UPS
4. 4. It is certainly a substitute for an ombudsman.
4. 4. It is certainly a substitute for an ombudsman.
5. It receives complaints directly from aggrieved persons.
A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 5
Ans : C
Q - 425 : The primary object of judicial control over administration is:
A. To restrict the discretion and arbitrariness of administrative agencies
B. To help in redressing the grievances of citizens
C. To safeguard the rights and liberty of the citizens
D. To contain and penalise the wrongful acts of government officials
Ans : C
Q - 427 : Consider the following statements:
A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 5
Ans : C
Q - 425 : The primary object of judicial control over administration is:
A. To restrict the discretion and arbitrariness of administrative agencies
B. To help in redressing the grievances of citizens
C. To safeguard the rights and liberty of the citizens
D. To contain and penalise the wrongful acts of government officials
Ans : C
Q - 427 : Consider the following statements:
1. The chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts Comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : A
Q - 428 : In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
A. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
B. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
C. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
D. to postpone the proceedings to check the in appropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.
Ans : A
Q - 429 : Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : A
Q - 428 : In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
A. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
B. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
C. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
D. to postpone the proceedings to check the in appropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.
Ans : A
Q - 429 : Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of moneys from consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
3. Provision of supplementary grants and vote-on-account. Select the Answer using the codes given below:
A. Codes: 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 430 : In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
A. Codes: 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 430 : In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them
Ans : B
Q - 431 : Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee of Public Accounts
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them
Ans : B
Q - 431 : Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee of Public Accounts
1. Consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.
2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 432 : The functions of Estimate Committee include:
A. 1only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 432 : The functions of Estimate Committee include:
1. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in administration.
2 To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.
3 To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament Which of the above, the correct statement are:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : B
Q - 433 : Assertion
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : B
Q - 433 : Assertion
(A): Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished by the creation of the contingency Fund of India. Reason
(R): The Contingency Fund of India is operated by the executive on behalf of the President of India. Select the correct code:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Ans : A
Q - 434 : An act is crime (in the content of Indian law) as
A. It is so declared by publi
B. It is so dictated by morality.
C. Statute makes it.
D. Common law has declared it.
Ans : C
Q - 435 : Mark the
Ans :
A. Crime is essentially an immortal act.
B. Crime is an illegal act.
C. Crime is essentially a socially reprehensible act.
D. Crime is essentially an anti-religious act.
Ans : C
Q - 436 : Criminal law consists of:
A. Definition of offences and punishment for them (IPC).
B. Procedure for investigation, prosecution, trial, (cr.pc) et
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Ans : A
Q - 434 : An act is crime (in the content of Indian law) as
A. It is so declared by publi
B. It is so dictated by morality.
C. Statute makes it.
D. Common law has declared it.
Ans : C
Q - 435 : Mark the
Ans :
A. Crime is essentially an immortal act.
B. Crime is an illegal act.
C. Crime is essentially a socially reprehensible act.
D. Crime is essentially an anti-religious act.
Ans : C
Q - 436 : Criminal law consists of:
A. Definition of offences and punishment for them (IPC).
B. Procedure for investigation, prosecution, trial, (cr.pc) et
C. It includes prevention of offences as well.
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 437 : "In order that an act should be punishable it must be morally blame-worthy. It must be a sin". Which of the following judges made this observation?
A. Salmond
B. Krishna Iyer
C. Lord Denning
D. Stephen
Ans : C
Q - 438 : The IPC was enacted on
A. 6 October, 1860
B. 1 September, 1872
C. 1 July, 1882
D. 6 December, 1890
Ans : A
Q - 439 : The draft of IPC was prepared by
A. Dr. Harisingh Gaur
B. Lord Macaulay
D.F. Mulla
D. Kenny
Ans : B
Q - 440 : IPC (act XLV of 1860) is divided into
A. XXI chapters and 503 Sections.
B. XXIII chapters and 511 Sections.
C. XXII chapters and 511 Sections.
D. XXIII schedules and 511 Sections.
Ans : B
Q - 441 : Section 1 of the IPC talks about the
A. Definition of crime.
B. Title and jurisdiction of the code.
C. Title and extent of operation of the code.
D. Title and object of the code.
Ans : C
Q - 442 : Mark the correct statement:
A. The Penal Code applies to every person in any part of India for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the code.
B. The code applies to any offence committed by any citizen of India without and beyond India.
C. Every act committed outside India which, if committed in India, would be punishable under the code.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 443 : If a person who is a citizen of India commits any offence out of India, he
A. cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India.
B. can be prosecuted in the country where the offence was committe
C. can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be foun
D. cannot be prosecuted neither in India, nor in the country, where the crime was committed
Ans : C
Q - 444 : Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 437 : "In order that an act should be punishable it must be morally blame-worthy. It must be a sin". Which of the following judges made this observation?
A. Salmond
B. Krishna Iyer
C. Lord Denning
D. Stephen
Ans : C
Q - 438 : The IPC was enacted on
A. 6 October, 1860
B. 1 September, 1872
C. 1 July, 1882
D. 6 December, 1890
Ans : A
Q - 439 : The draft of IPC was prepared by
A. Dr. Harisingh Gaur
B. Lord Macaulay
D.F. Mulla
D. Kenny
Ans : B
Q - 440 : IPC (act XLV of 1860) is divided into
A. XXI chapters and 503 Sections.
B. XXIII chapters and 511 Sections.
C. XXII chapters and 511 Sections.
D. XXIII schedules and 511 Sections.
Ans : B
Q - 441 : Section 1 of the IPC talks about the
A. Definition of crime.
B. Title and jurisdiction of the code.
C. Title and extent of operation of the code.
D. Title and object of the code.
Ans : C
Q - 442 : Mark the correct statement:
A. The Penal Code applies to every person in any part of India for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the code.
B. The code applies to any offence committed by any citizen of India without and beyond India.
C. Every act committed outside India which, if committed in India, would be punishable under the code.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 443 : If a person who is a citizen of India commits any offence out of India, he
A. cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India.
B. can be prosecuted in the country where the offence was committe
C. can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be foun
D. cannot be prosecuted neither in India, nor in the country, where the crime was committed
Ans : C
Q - 444 : Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
I Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.
II. Crime committed by a foreigner in India.
III. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship Codes:
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I, II and III
Ans : D
Q - 445 : Mark the correct statements:
A. The Indian Penal Code prescribes no fixed time within which prosecution should be launche
B. The code follows the maxim nullum tempus occurrit regi.
C. The Criminal Procedure Code introduced the concept of limitation
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 446 : Which of the following statement is incorrect .
A. Crime is a branch of public law.
B. To constitute crime, mens rea is require
C. In crime, statute has no control over proceedings.
D. In crime, there is a punishment.
Ans : C
Q - 447 : Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The categories of the criminal should be determined by general laws.
B. The penal statutes should be strictly followed or constructe
C. There should be ex-post facto penal laws.
D. The persons should be punished without an act.
Ans : B
Q - 448 : Special law' as defined in Section 41, IPC means:
A. a law applicable to a particular subject.
B. a law applicable to a particular part of India.
C. a law applicable to a class.
D. a law applicable to a local community.
Ans : A
Q - 449 : The term 'offence' means
A. a thing made punishable by the Penal code.
B. a thing punishable by the Penal code or any special or local law, in certain case.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Ans : C
Q - 450 : The essential ingredients of a crime are:
A. motive, mens rea and actus reus.
B. motive, intention and knowledge.
C. mens rea and actus reus.
D. knowledge, intention and action.
Ans : C
Q - 451 : Actus reus is defined as "such result of human conduct as the law seeks to prevent”.in the light of this observation, which following statements is incorrect:
A. actus reus means act of omission or commission, which is called conduct.
B. actus reus means conduct prohibited by law.
C. actus reus means voluntary as well as involuntary human actions.
D. actus reus includes results of an act i.e., injury
Ans : D
Q - 452 : Section 497, IPC, defines 'adultery' thus:whoever has sexual intercourse with a person who is and whom he knows, or has reason to believe to be the wife of another. Here, actus reus relates to
A. time
B. place
C. person
D. married woman
Ans : D
Q - 453 : The maxim 'actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means
A. guilty minds gives birth to crime.
B. there can be no crime without a guilty min
C. crime is a child of guilty min
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans : B
Q - 454 : Which of these is a landmark judgement on the applicability of section 300(3) in a criminal trial?
A. Virsa Singh vs State of Punja
B. Inder Singh vs State of Pepsu.
C. Brij Bhushan vs State.
D. R. Venkalu vs State of Hyderaba
D.
Ans : A
Q - 455 : In the context of criminal liability, state which of the following statements is correct?
A. mens rea is a mandatory element of a crime and there cannot be any crime without mens rea.
B. in its nature, the criminal liability is less punitive and more prohibitive.
C. criminal liability generally implies mens rea, except where it has been expressly exclude
D. the punishment is commensurate with the act.
Ans : C
Q - 457 : Which one of the following statements correctly describes the concept of mens rea?
A. mens rea need to be present at the stage of planning, but not at the stage of commission of the offence.
B. mens rea should be excluded unless the statute specifically requires it to be prove
C. absolute prohibition is not required to negate mens rea.
D. if the statute is silent about mens rea, as a general rule it should be read into the statute.
Ans : D
Q - 458 : Local law as defined in sec. 42, IPC means:
A. a law applicable to a particular subject.
B. a law applicable to a particular part of India.
C. the municipal law.
D. a law applicable to a local community.
Ans : B
Q - 459 : Give the correct response:
A. the word 'attempt' clearly conveys the idea that if attempt succeeded, the offence would have been committe
D.
B. attempt is the direct movement towards the commission of an offence after preparation has been made.
C. if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit crime.
D. all acts towards committing a misdemeanour are not indictable. Acts remotely leading towards commission of offences are not to be considered as attempt to commit but acts immediately connected with it are.
Ans : C
Q - 460 : Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation is not punishable generally but attempts is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there
A. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
B. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence.
C. is absence of intention.
D. is absence of attempt.
Ans : B
Q - 461 : In which of the following cases, Sarkaria J.(S.C) disapproved the narrow view taken by Kenny that "attempt" is the last, penultimate act which a person does towards the commission of an offence, the consummation of the offence being hindered by circumstances beyond his control:
A. Asghar Ali Pradhania vs Emperor.
B. State of Maharashtra vs MYaku
C. Abhayanand Mishra vs State of Bihar.
D. Malkiat Singh vs State of Punja
Ans : B
Q - 462 : Which of the following correctly describes the four stages of a crime?
A. Attempt, Preparation, Intention, Result.
B. Intention, Attempt, Preparation, Result.
C. Intention, Preparation, Attempt, Result.
D. Result, Intention, Preparation, Attempt.
Ans : C
Q - 463 : In State of Maharashtra vs M. Yakub, which of the criteria was used by the court to distinguish an attempt to commit a crime from its mere 'preparation’ :
A. Impossibility.
B. Danger to the society.
C. Opportunity to retreat from the offence.
D. Proximity.
Ans : D
Q - 464 : Section 511 does not apply in case of
A. attempt of riot
B. attempt of theft
C. attempt of murder
D. attempt of affray
Ans : C
Q - 465 : State in which of the following cases, P is guilty of attempting to commit the offence:
A. P, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Q, Sends his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Q. As the servant reaches stamp shop, he is arreste
B. P shoots at Q whose back is toward The attempt fails as Q catches a is beyond the range of the gun
C. P pours half a pint of substance from bottle marked poison into the whisky of Q, Q is not aware. It turns out that bottle did not contain any poison.
D. P administers some noxious substance to a woman so that an abortion results. The women was not pregnant.
Ans : B
Q - 466 : A purchased a stamp paper in the name of person whose name he intended to forge. As guilty of
A. attempt of forgery.
B. attempt of cheating.
C. attempt of criminal misappropriation.
D. no offence.
Ans : D
Q - 467 : A woman ran to a well stating she would jump in it but she was caught before she could reach it. She is guilty of
A. attempt to suicide.
B. attempt to murder.
C. attempt to culpable homicide.
D. no offence
Ans : D
Q - 468 : Which of the following is an instance of criminal attempt?
A. A procures colour with an intent to make false coins.
B. A is in possession of some obscene photographs and he thought of publishing them.
C. A, with an intent to kill B, administers sugar thinking it to be poison powder.
D. None of the above
Ans : D
Q - 469 : 'X' with a view to murdering 'Y' enters Y’s bedroom at night when 'Y' is out of station. ‘X' is guilty of
A. murder
B. house trespass
C. attempt to murder
D. no offence
Ans : B
Q - 470 : Section 511, IPC is not related to the offen for which the punishment is:
A. death sentence
B. life-imprisonment
C. imprisonment
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 471 : 'A' intending to murder 'B' by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of water. He gives to bearer to serve 'B'. The bearer while approaching 'B' loses balance and the glass drops out of his plate.
A. 'A' has committed no offence.
B. 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to commit culpable homicide.
C. 'A' has committed the offence of abetment.
D. 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to murder.
Ans : D
Q - 472 : 'Z' with intention to steal ornaments opened Y's box and found it empty. Which one of the following statements is correct? Z is
A. Not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box being empty, commission of theft was impossible.
B. Not liable for attempt commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards commission of theft.
C. Not guilty of attempt to commit theft as he made only preparation to commit theft.
D. Guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did an act towards its commission.
Ans : D
Q - 473 : Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible theft. Reason (R): No criminal liability can be incurred under se
C. 511 for an attempt to do an act which, if done will not be an offence.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Ans : D
Q - 474 : The Fundamental principle of criminal liability is embodied in the maxim "actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea". The maxim was developed by:
A. Equity Courts
B. Common Law Courts
C. Sadar Nizamat Court
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Q - 475 : "Wrongful gain' means
A. gain by lawful' means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
B. gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
C. gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 476 : 'Wrongful loss' means
A. loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled
B. loss by lawful means of property which the person losing it is not legally entitled
C. loss by lawful means of property which the person losing is not legally entitled
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 477 : The provision of personation at elections under Section 171D of IPC
A. shall apply to a person who has been authorised to vote as proxy for an elector under any law in force
B. shall not apply to a person who has been authorised to vote as proxy for an elector under any law in force
C. does not lead to any restriction under any law in force
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Q - 478 : 'Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person & wrongful loss to another, under
A. Section 21
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
Ans : C
Q - 479 : 'Fraudulently' has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud
A. Section 23
B. Section 25
C. Section 24
D. Section 26
Ans : B
Q - 480 : When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all
A. each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
B. each of such person is liable for his own overt act
C. each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 481 : Which of these punishments was removed from the IPC in the year 1949?
A. Penal servitude
B. Death
C. Forfeiture of property
D. Solitary confinement
Ans : A
Q - 482 : To establish Section 34 of IPC
A. common intention be proved but not overt act of each be proved
B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 483 : Section 34 of IPC
A. creates a substantive offence
B. is a rule of evidence
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : B
Q - 484 : 'X' & 'Y' go to murder 'Z'. ‘X' stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit 'Z' at all. Y killed ‘Z’
A. only 'Y' is liable for murder of 'Z’
B. 'X' & 'Y' both are liable for murder of 'Z'
C. 'X' is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : B
Q - 485 : 'Voluntarily' has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, knew or had reason to believe it to be likely to cause it under
A. Section 39
B. Section 38
C. Section 37
D. Section 40
Ans : A
Q - 486 : Under Section 45 of IPC, life denotes
A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Ans : A
Q - 487 : Under Section 46 of IPC, death denotes.
A. death of a human being.
B. death of an animal.
C. death of a human being and of an animal both.
D. death of either human being or an animal.
Ans : A
Q - 488 : Illegal signifies
A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 489 : Animal denotes
A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature - live or dead
D. either (a) or (c)
Ans : B
Q - 490 : How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code?
A. three
B. six
C. five
D. four
Ans : C
Q - 491 : Under Section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b)
Ans : C
Q - 492 : Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 64 of IPC
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 493 : Under Section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
Ans : B
Q - 494 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine
A. has to be rigorous
B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
Ans : B
Q - 495 : Under Section 498A of IPC cruelty includes
A. harassment of the woman
B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only
D. cruelty by wife
Ans : A
Q - 496 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs.100 but exceeding Rs.50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed
A. two months
B. three months
C. four months
D. six months
Ans : C
Q - 497 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs.100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed
A. one year
B. six months
C. four months
D. two months
Ans : B
Q - 498 : Section 64 of IPC provides for
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non payment of fine
D. (d) limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the nature of imprisonment.
Ans : C
Q - 499 : Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate
A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : C
Q - 500 : In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction
D. All of the above
Ans : A
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I, II and III
Ans : D
Q - 445 : Mark the correct statements:
A. The Indian Penal Code prescribes no fixed time within which prosecution should be launche
B. The code follows the maxim nullum tempus occurrit regi.
C. The Criminal Procedure Code introduced the concept of limitation
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 446 : Which of the following statement is incorrect .
A. Crime is a branch of public law.
B. To constitute crime, mens rea is require
C. In crime, statute has no control over proceedings.
D. In crime, there is a punishment.
Ans : C
Q - 447 : Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The categories of the criminal should be determined by general laws.
B. The penal statutes should be strictly followed or constructe
C. There should be ex-post facto penal laws.
D. The persons should be punished without an act.
Ans : B
Q - 448 : Special law' as defined in Section 41, IPC means:
A. a law applicable to a particular subject.
B. a law applicable to a particular part of India.
C. a law applicable to a class.
D. a law applicable to a local community.
Ans : A
Q - 449 : The term 'offence' means
A. a thing made punishable by the Penal code.
B. a thing punishable by the Penal code or any special or local law, in certain case.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Ans : C
Q - 450 : The essential ingredients of a crime are:
A. motive, mens rea and actus reus.
B. motive, intention and knowledge.
C. mens rea and actus reus.
D. knowledge, intention and action.
Ans : C
Q - 451 : Actus reus is defined as "such result of human conduct as the law seeks to prevent”.in the light of this observation, which following statements is incorrect:
A. actus reus means act of omission or commission, which is called conduct.
B. actus reus means conduct prohibited by law.
C. actus reus means voluntary as well as involuntary human actions.
D. actus reus includes results of an act i.e., injury
Ans : D
Q - 452 : Section 497, IPC, defines 'adultery' thus:whoever has sexual intercourse with a person who is and whom he knows, or has reason to believe to be the wife of another. Here, actus reus relates to
A. time
B. place
C. person
D. married woman
Ans : D
Q - 453 : The maxim 'actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means
A. guilty minds gives birth to crime.
B. there can be no crime without a guilty min
C. crime is a child of guilty min
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans : B
Q - 454 : Which of these is a landmark judgement on the applicability of section 300(3) in a criminal trial?
A. Virsa Singh vs State of Punja
B. Inder Singh vs State of Pepsu.
C. Brij Bhushan vs State.
D. R. Venkalu vs State of Hyderaba
D.
Ans : A
Q - 455 : In the context of criminal liability, state which of the following statements is correct?
A. mens rea is a mandatory element of a crime and there cannot be any crime without mens rea.
B. in its nature, the criminal liability is less punitive and more prohibitive.
C. criminal liability generally implies mens rea, except where it has been expressly exclude
D. the punishment is commensurate with the act.
Ans : C
Q - 457 : Which one of the following statements correctly describes the concept of mens rea?
A. mens rea need to be present at the stage of planning, but not at the stage of commission of the offence.
B. mens rea should be excluded unless the statute specifically requires it to be prove
C. absolute prohibition is not required to negate mens rea.
D. if the statute is silent about mens rea, as a general rule it should be read into the statute.
Ans : D
Q - 458 : Local law as defined in sec. 42, IPC means:
A. a law applicable to a particular subject.
B. a law applicable to a particular part of India.
C. the municipal law.
D. a law applicable to a local community.
Ans : B
Q - 459 : Give the correct response:
A. the word 'attempt' clearly conveys the idea that if attempt succeeded, the offence would have been committe
D.
B. attempt is the direct movement towards the commission of an offence after preparation has been made.
C. if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit crime.
D. all acts towards committing a misdemeanour are not indictable. Acts remotely leading towards commission of offences are not to be considered as attempt to commit but acts immediately connected with it are.
Ans : C
Q - 460 : Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation is not punishable generally but attempts is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there
A. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
B. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence.
C. is absence of intention.
D. is absence of attempt.
Ans : B
Q - 461 : In which of the following cases, Sarkaria J.(S.C) disapproved the narrow view taken by Kenny that "attempt" is the last, penultimate act which a person does towards the commission of an offence, the consummation of the offence being hindered by circumstances beyond his control:
A. Asghar Ali Pradhania vs Emperor.
B. State of Maharashtra vs MYaku
C. Abhayanand Mishra vs State of Bihar.
D. Malkiat Singh vs State of Punja
Ans : B
Q - 462 : Which of the following correctly describes the four stages of a crime?
A. Attempt, Preparation, Intention, Result.
B. Intention, Attempt, Preparation, Result.
C. Intention, Preparation, Attempt, Result.
D. Result, Intention, Preparation, Attempt.
Ans : C
Q - 463 : In State of Maharashtra vs M. Yakub, which of the criteria was used by the court to distinguish an attempt to commit a crime from its mere 'preparation’ :
A. Impossibility.
B. Danger to the society.
C. Opportunity to retreat from the offence.
D. Proximity.
Ans : D
Q - 464 : Section 511 does not apply in case of
A. attempt of riot
B. attempt of theft
C. attempt of murder
D. attempt of affray
Ans : C
Q - 465 : State in which of the following cases, P is guilty of attempting to commit the offence:
A. P, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Q, Sends his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Q. As the servant reaches stamp shop, he is arreste
B. P shoots at Q whose back is toward The attempt fails as Q catches a is beyond the range of the gun
C. P pours half a pint of substance from bottle marked poison into the whisky of Q, Q is not aware. It turns out that bottle did not contain any poison.
D. P administers some noxious substance to a woman so that an abortion results. The women was not pregnant.
Ans : B
Q - 466 : A purchased a stamp paper in the name of person whose name he intended to forge. As guilty of
A. attempt of forgery.
B. attempt of cheating.
C. attempt of criminal misappropriation.
D. no offence.
Ans : D
Q - 467 : A woman ran to a well stating she would jump in it but she was caught before she could reach it. She is guilty of
A. attempt to suicide.
B. attempt to murder.
C. attempt to culpable homicide.
D. no offence
Ans : D
Q - 468 : Which of the following is an instance of criminal attempt?
A. A procures colour with an intent to make false coins.
B. A is in possession of some obscene photographs and he thought of publishing them.
C. A, with an intent to kill B, administers sugar thinking it to be poison powder.
D. None of the above
Ans : D
Q - 469 : 'X' with a view to murdering 'Y' enters Y’s bedroom at night when 'Y' is out of station. ‘X' is guilty of
A. murder
B. house trespass
C. attempt to murder
D. no offence
Ans : B
Q - 470 : Section 511, IPC is not related to the offen for which the punishment is:
A. death sentence
B. life-imprisonment
C. imprisonment
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 471 : 'A' intending to murder 'B' by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of water. He gives to bearer to serve 'B'. The bearer while approaching 'B' loses balance and the glass drops out of his plate.
A. 'A' has committed no offence.
B. 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to commit culpable homicide.
C. 'A' has committed the offence of abetment.
D. 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to murder.
Ans : D
Q - 472 : 'Z' with intention to steal ornaments opened Y's box and found it empty. Which one of the following statements is correct? Z is
A. Not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box being empty, commission of theft was impossible.
B. Not liable for attempt commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards commission of theft.
C. Not guilty of attempt to commit theft as he made only preparation to commit theft.
D. Guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did an act towards its commission.
Ans : D
Q - 473 : Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible theft. Reason (R): No criminal liability can be incurred under se
C. 511 for an attempt to do an act which, if done will not be an offence.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Ans : D
Q - 474 : The Fundamental principle of criminal liability is embodied in the maxim "actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea". The maxim was developed by:
A. Equity Courts
B. Common Law Courts
C. Sadar Nizamat Court
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Q - 475 : "Wrongful gain' means
A. gain by lawful' means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
B. gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
C. gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 476 : 'Wrongful loss' means
A. loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled
B. loss by lawful means of property which the person losing it is not legally entitled
C. loss by lawful means of property which the person losing is not legally entitled
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 477 : The provision of personation at elections under Section 171D of IPC
A. shall apply to a person who has been authorised to vote as proxy for an elector under any law in force
B. shall not apply to a person who has been authorised to vote as proxy for an elector under any law in force
C. does not lead to any restriction under any law in force
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Q - 478 : 'Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person & wrongful loss to another, under
A. Section 21
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
Ans : C
Q - 479 : 'Fraudulently' has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud
A. Section 23
B. Section 25
C. Section 24
D. Section 26
Ans : B
Q - 480 : When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all
A. each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
B. each of such person is liable for his own overt act
C. each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 481 : Which of these punishments was removed from the IPC in the year 1949?
A. Penal servitude
B. Death
C. Forfeiture of property
D. Solitary confinement
Ans : A
Q - 482 : To establish Section 34 of IPC
A. common intention be proved but not overt act of each be proved
B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 483 : Section 34 of IPC
A. creates a substantive offence
B. is a rule of evidence
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : B
Q - 484 : 'X' & 'Y' go to murder 'Z'. ‘X' stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit 'Z' at all. Y killed ‘Z’
A. only 'Y' is liable for murder of 'Z’
B. 'X' & 'Y' both are liable for murder of 'Z'
C. 'X' is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : B
Q - 485 : 'Voluntarily' has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, knew or had reason to believe it to be likely to cause it under
A. Section 39
B. Section 38
C. Section 37
D. Section 40
Ans : A
Q - 486 : Under Section 45 of IPC, life denotes
A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Ans : A
Q - 487 : Under Section 46 of IPC, death denotes.
A. death of a human being.
B. death of an animal.
C. death of a human being and of an animal both.
D. death of either human being or an animal.
Ans : A
Q - 488 : Illegal signifies
A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 489 : Animal denotes
A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature - live or dead
D. either (a) or (c)
Ans : B
Q - 490 : How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code?
A. three
B. six
C. five
D. four
Ans : C
Q - 491 : Under Section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b)
Ans : C
Q - 492 : Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 64 of IPC
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 493 : Under Section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
Ans : B
Q - 494 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine
A. has to be rigorous
B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
Ans : B
Q - 495 : Under Section 498A of IPC cruelty includes
A. harassment of the woman
B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only
D. cruelty by wife
Ans : A
Q - 496 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs.100 but exceeding Rs.50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed
A. two months
B. three months
C. four months
D. six months
Ans : C
Q - 497 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs.100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed
A. one year
B. six months
C. four months
D. two months
Ans : B
Q - 498 : Section 64 of IPC provides for
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non payment of fine
D. (d) limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the nature of imprisonment.
Ans : C
Q - 499 : Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate
A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : C
Q - 500 : In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction
D. All of the above
Ans : A
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