1 - 100 | MCQ | Question and Answer in LAW Exam | AIBE | APP | Judiciary exams

Q - 1 : Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Bailable offence
B. Non-Bailable offence
C. Cognizable offence
D. Non-cognizable offence
Ans : A

Q - 2 : Under section 138 of the Act, territorial jurisdiction does not arise on the following places
A. Where cheque is issued
B. In the local limit where the cheque is presented in the bank
C. Where the cheque is dishonored by the bank
D. From where the notice to pay the amount is issued
Ans : D

Q - 3 : What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’?
A. There must be an allegation in the complaint
B. The allegation must be about the commission of an offence
C. The complaint must be made to the magistrate
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 4 : Which is not a negotiable instrument?
A. Bond
B. Promissory note
C. Bill of Exchange
D. Cheque
Ans : A

Q - 5 : Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines
A. Metropolitan Area
B. Assistant Public Procsecutors
C. Special Judicial Magistrate
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 6 : Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.
A. 140
B. 150
C. 147
D. 211
Ans : C

Q - 7 : What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the court?
A. Summons
B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Attachment of property
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 8 : Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines
A. Non-Bailable offence
B. Cognizable offence
C. Non-cognizable offence
D. Both B and C
Ans : B

Q - 9 : What are the kinds of warrant?
A. Bailable warrants
B. Non-Bailable warrants
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 10 : What is the difference between summon and warrant?
A. Issuing of summon is a primary stage. Generally warrants are issued if the attendance of an offender cannot be procured through summons
B. A summon is issued at the first instance in summons cases as well as in a warrant case. But warrant cannot be issued at the first instance in summons cases.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 11 : Which condition/s must be satisfied before issuing a proclamation?
A. A summon should have been legally issued against a person.
B. A warrant should have been legally issued against a person
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 12 : What are the important condition/s necessary for initiation of proceedings under section 107?
A. Formation of opinion by magistrate
B. Existence of sufficient ground for proceeding
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 13 : Public nuisance may be defined as
A. An obstruction, risk or injury to the life
B. A risk or injury to health
C. An obstruction to the comfort or convenience of public at large
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 14 : Section ………… of the code of the criminal procedure deals with the circumstances when a conditional order for removal of nuisance can be passe
A. 131
B. 133
C. 139
D. 143
Ans : B

Q - 15 : Which condition/s should be fulfilled to constitute the Frist Information Report (F.I.R.)?
A. What is convency must be information
B. That information should be related to the commission of an offence on the face of it.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 16 : A ……….. is not entitled to maintenance under section 125 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973.
A. Wife unable to maintain herself
B. Divorced wife (not remarried)
C. Minor daughter
D. Divorced wife remarried
Ans : D

Q - 17 : Inherent powers under section 482 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973 can be exercised by
A. Judicial Magistrate first class
B. Sessions Judge
C. High Court
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans : C

Q - 18 : Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?
A. Section 149
B. Section 154
C. Section 155
D. Section 200
Ans : B

Q - 19 : How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
Ans : D

Q - 20 : The Supreme Court’s Judge retries at the age of
A. 58 years
B. 70 years
C. 62 years
D. 65 years
Ans : D

Q - 21 : Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by
A. President of India
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. None of the above
Ans : C

Q - 22 : In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’?
A. Planning Commission
B. National Development Council
C. Central Cabinet
D. Parliament
Ans : B

Q - 23 : Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
A. Finance Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 24 : In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India?
A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1975
D. Never
Ans : D

Q - 25 : The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San Francisco on
A. June 26, 1945
B. August 15, 1943
C. January 26, 1946
D. December 30, 1941
Ans : A

Q - 26 : How Many members are there in the Security Council?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15
Ans : D

Q - 27 : The Procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in
A. Article 124(4)
B. Article 124 (5)
C. Article 125
D. Airtcle 126
Ans : A

Q - 28 : In International Court of Justice, there are
A. President and 15 other members
B. President, Vice-President and 15 other members
C. President, Vice-President and 14 other members
D. President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : D

Q - 29 : Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between
A. The Prime Minister and the President
B. Legislature and Exceutive
C. Exceutive and Judiciary
D. Centre and States
Ans : D

Q - 30 : A decree may be executed by
A. Tehsildar
B. Collector
C. District Judge
D. Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : D

Q - 31 : Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’?
A. Section 2(4)
B. Section 2(14)
C. Section 2 (6)
D. Section 2(12)
Ans : D

Q - 32 : Pleading has been defined in
A. Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
B. Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
C. Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
D. Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : A

Q - 33 : Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
B. Metropolitant Magistrate
C. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
D. 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
Ans : D

Q - 34 : Which one of the following suits is not of a civil nature?
A. Suits relating to rights to property
B. Suit for rents
C. Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
D. Suits against dismissals from service
Ans : C

Q - 35 : In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of –
A. One-fourth
B. One-Third
C. Two-third
D. One-half
Ans : C

Q - 36 : Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of five, how many of them need to be proved?
A. Five
B. Three
C. One
D. Two
Ans : C

Q - 37 : Promissory estoppel is sometimes spoken of as a substitute of –
A. Novation
B. Quasi-contract
C. Consideration
D. Coercion
Ans : B

Q - 38 : X contracted with a tent house for erecting a shamiana for performing the marriage of his daughter. On the day of marriage, a curfew was clamped in the area preventing the celebration of the marriage. The shamiana owner claims the charges agreed to be paid by X. In the light of the above, which one of the following is correct?
A. X has to pay the contracted charges
B. X need not pay the agreed charges but only reasonable charges
C. X can require the State to bear the claim for famages
D. X need not pay anything as the celebration of the marriage was impossible on account of the curfew
Ans : D

Q - 39 : What is/are the characteristic/s of a share?
A. A share is an interest of a shareholder in the company
B. It is a bundle of rights and obligations of shareholder of the company
C. These rights and obligations are regulated by the articles of the company
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 40 : Which companies are required to have their own articles and get them registered along with the memorandum?
A. Unlimited companies
B. Companies limited by guarantee
C. Private company limited by shares
D. All Above
Ans : D

Q - 41 : In which case, the acts of a company are said to be ultra vires:
A. Acts which do not fall within the main objects of the company
B. Acts which do not fall within the objects incidental or ancillary to the main object of the company
C. Acts done after the Main objects become impossible
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 42 : The memorandum of a company must contain
A. Name and place clause
B. Object and Liability clause
C. Capital clause and subscribers’ clause
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 43 : What are the main features of memorandum of association?
A. It is a fundamental document or charter of the company
B. It is essential for every company to prepare memorandum for its registration
C. It should be originally frame
D. It cannot be adopte
D. It contains objects of the company
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 44 : What are the necessary steps for registration of a company?
A. Preliminary steps
B. Delivery of documents by the Registrar
C. Scrutiny of documents by the Registrar and obtaining certificate of incorporation
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 45 : According to …………., “The memorandum of association of a company is its charter and defines the limitations of the company established under the Act”.
A. Lord Justice Cairns
B. Lord Justics Bowen
C. Palmer
D. Ramaiya
Ans : A

Q - 46 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of ownership?
A. Government companies
B. Non-government companies
C. Association not for profit or charitable company
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 47 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of control?
A. Holding company
B. Subsidiary company
C. One man company
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 48 : The companies with limited liability may be
A. Companies limited by shares
B. Companies limited by guarantee
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 49 : For which purpose, the Central Government may appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the matters relating to the company.
A. For determining the true persons who are or have been financially interested in the success or failure of the company
B. For determining the true persons who are or have been able to control or materially influence the policy of the Company
C. For Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 50 : According to ……… “A company is an artificial person created by law, having separate entity, with a perpetual succession and common seal”.
A. Lord Justice Lindley
B. Prof. Haney
C. Justice Marshall
D. Gower, L.
C.
B.
Ans : B

Q - 51 : What are the merits of a Negotiable instrument ?
A. Unlimited number of endorsements
B. No notice of transfer/endorsement needed
C. A negotiable instrument is valid only when it is for a certain sum of money
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 52 : Which of the following is/are negotiable instrument/s?
A. Promissory note
B. Bill of Exchange
C. Cheque
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 53 : What is/are the Essential/s of a promissory note?
A. A promissory note must be in writing
B. There is no prescribed preform for promissory note
C. It must contain an express promise to pay
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 54 : ………… can make a promissory note payable to bearer.
A. RBI
B. Central Government
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 55 : The main parties to a bill of exchange are
A. Drawer
B. Drawee
C. Acceptor
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 56 : The person who is directed to pay the bill of exchange is called
A. Holder
B. Drawee
C. Payee
D. Acceptor
Ans : B

Q - 57 : The Transfer of property Act, 1882 covers
A. Movable Property
B. Immovable property
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 58 : An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 means
A. A Negotiable Instrument
B. A Transferable Instrument
C. A Non-Testamentary Instrument
D. A will
Ans : C

Q - 59 : Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favor of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called
A. Conditional Transfer
B. Transfer by Interest
C. Absolute Transfer
D. Contingent Transfer
Ans : D

Q - 60 : Which of the following is not an actionable claim?
A. Right to a Provident Fund Account
B. Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promises succeed in L.L.
B. examination
C. Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promise marries a particular woman
D. Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
Ans : D

Q - 61 : A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by
A. Oral agreement
B. Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
C. Simple instrument
D. Only by a registered instrument
Ans : D

Q - 62 : Universal donee is
A. Not liable for any debt or liability
B. Donee is personally liable for all debts to liabilities existing at the time of gift
C. Donee is only liable for half of the liabilities
D. Donee is only liable for the one-third of liabilities
Ans : B

Q - 63 : When did the Banking Regulation Act come into effect ?
A. 16th January 1949
B. 16th April 1949
C. 16th March 1949
D. 16th February 1949
Ans : C

Q - 64 : Lease of immovable property determines
A. By efflux of time. Limited thereby
B. By implied surrender
C. By the happening of such event, where the interest of the leassor in the property, terminates on the happening of that event
D. When the lessee becomes insolvent
Ans : D

Q - 65 : An instrument as defined under section 3 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 means:
A. A Negotiable Instrument
B. A Transferable Instrument
C. A Non-testamentary Instrument
D. A will
Ans : C

Q - 66 : In case of “Part performance” what is not necessary with a transferee?
A. Possession
B. Contract for consideration
C. Notice to transferor
D. Readiness on his part
Ans : C

Q - 67 : What is the rank of India in the Foreign Exchange Reserve ?
A. 15th
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 1st
Ans : C

Q - 68 : What may be transferred?
A. Spec Successions
B. A right to sue
C. A right of re-entry to the owner for breach of a subsequent condition
D. A right to future maintenance
Ans : C

Q - 69 : A mortgage by deposit of debts is called
A. Anomalous mortgage
B. English mortgage
C. Equitable mortgage
D. Usufruct by mortgage
Ans : C

Q - 70 : What kind of transfer may be made orally?
A. Gift of immovable property
B. Transfer of actionable claim
C. Sale of immovable property of value upward Rs.100
D. Surrender of lease
Ans : D

Q - 71 : Whether simple mortgage must always be registered?
A. Yes
B. If value of property is more than Rs. 100
C. Registration not necessary
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 72 : What are the essentials of a valid Gift?
A. There must be a donor
B. A donee
C. A proper object of gift and an acceptance by the donee
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 73 : In case of usufructuary mortgage the mortgages is placed in possession who has a right to receive the rent and other profits till
A. Mortgage money is paid
B. Contract is rescinded
C. Period of thirty years
D. Period of 99 years
Ans : A

Q - 74 : For applicability of doctrine of List pendants, the property would be
A. Movable
B. Immovable
C. Both Movable and immovable
D. None of these
Ans : D

Q - 75 : In which of the following cases, a transfer of immovable property can be made without writing?
A. Sale of property of a value more than Rs.100
B. Lease for a term of 11 months
C. Exchange
D. Actionable claim
Ans : B

Q - 76 : Whether a transfer can be made in favour of an unborn person?
A. Yes, by machinery of trust
B. Yes
C. Guardian has got to be appointed first
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 77 : Which of the following transfers is valid?
A. An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs. 99
B. An unregistered gift of immovable property of the value of Rs. 99
C. An oral lease of immovable property from year to year
D. An oral assignment of debts
Ans : A

Q - 78 : A right to obtain a decree from the court that the mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called
A. A right for foreclosure
B. A right for claim
C. A right for redemption
D. A right for sale
Ans : A

Q - 79 : Where immovable property is transferred for consideration by persons having distinct interest therein, but their interests in the property are of equal value, the transferor is
A. Entitled to get equal share in the consideration
B. Entitled to get unequal share in the consideration
C. Entitled to get equal share subject to further transfers in future
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 80 : In case of a gift if the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Revocable
D. Irrevocable
Ans : B

Q - 81 : Sale is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price
A. Paid
B. Promised
C. Part paid and part promised
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 82 : Under section 3 of the transfer of property Act the following does not amount to notice
A. Registration where the instrument is compulsorily registrable
B. Registration where the instrument is not compulsorily registrable
C. Possession
D. Notice to agent
Ans : B

Q - 83 : ’A’ gives a lakh of rupees to ‘B’ reserving to himself with B’s assent, the right to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of lakh. The gift
A. Is wholly void
B. Is invalid
C. Holds goods as to Rs. 90,000
D. In onerous
Ans : C

Q - 84 : What kind of property is transferable?
A. Right to re-entry
B. Public office
C. Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
D. Pension
Ans : C

Q - 85 : ‘A’ has let his house at a rent of Rs. 100 Payable on the last date of each month. ‘A’ sells house to ‘B’ on the 15th of June. On 30th June what will be apportionment?
A. ‘A’ will get Rs. 100
B. ‘B’ will get Rs. 100
C. Rs. 50 to ‘A’ and Rs. 50 to ‘B’
D. The tenant will be exempted from payment of rent of this month
Ans : C

Q - 86 : In absence of contract or local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property shall be deemed to be
A. Month to month
B. Bimonthly
C. Year to year
D. Bi-annual
Ans : C

Q - 87 : Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context to ‘transfer of property?
A. It means an act by which a living person conveys property
B. He conveys property in present or in future
C. He conveys property to one or more other living person
D. He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living person
Ans : D

Q - 88 : How many types of mortgages are there in section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Ans : C

Q - 89 : A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by
A. One month
B. Six month’s
C. Three month’s
D. Sixty days’ notice expiring with the end of a year of tenancy
Ans : B

Q - 90 : What is not required in “Gift”?
A. Doner and donee
B. Consideration
C. Moveable or immovable property
D. Transfer and acceptance
Ans : B

Q - 91 : “Immovable Property” does not include timber
A. True
B. False
C. Till it is rooted in the earth
D. Only the branches of timber does not include in immovable property
Ans : A

Q - 92 : “Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession”.
A. Wrong
B. Right can accrue only after payment of full consideration
C. Right
D. Delivery of possession is not necessary
Ans : C

Q - 93 : “Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally”.
A. False
B. Transfer can only be made by writing
C. With the consent of parties oral transfer can be done
D. True
Ans : D

Q - 94 : Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally
A. False
B. Transfer can only be made by writing
C. With the consent of parties oral transfer can be done
D. True
Ans : D

Q - 95 : Who is not a citizen by domicile?
A. Those who are born in the territory of India
B. Those whose either mother or father was born in the territory of India
C. Those who have been ordinarily residing in the territory of India after of Constitution of India, due to his work in India.
D. Who has been ordinarly resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding commencement of Constitution of India
Ans : C

Q - 96 : Under article 227 of the Constitution who has superintendence over all the courts and tribunals located in the territory to which it exercises jurisdiction?
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court
Ans : D

Q - 97 : Which is the latest case wherein Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court has reviewed the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution?
A. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab
B. Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Rajnarayan
C. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
D. Keshavanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Ans : C

Q - 98 : Which cannot be transferred?
A. Mere right to sue on the basis of agreement to sell
B. Right to receive arrears of rent
C. Right to recover detrital amount
D. Right to receive provident funds by will
Ans : A

Q - 99 : For part performance of the contract which is not an essential ingredient?
A. Contract to transfer immovable property
B. Contract is in writing and signed by transferor or on his behalf
C. Transferee is in possession of the property
D. Transferee has paid full consideration
Ans : D

Q - 100 : Legal validity of Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and FI Act 1993 was upheld by 3 judge bench of Honourable Supreme Court in _________ .
A. UOI v. Delhi High court bar Association
B. Horizon Flora India Lt
D. V. Asset Reconstruction Co. India Ltd
C. Baleshwar Dayal Jaiswal v. Bank of India
D. Vijay Laghu Udyog v. Punjab National Bank
Ans : A