A, knowing that B has committed dacoity, knowing conceals B in order in order to screen him from legal punishment. Under Section 212, IPC
A. only B is liable to imprisonment of life
B. only A is liable to imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding three years
C. A is liable to a fine only
D. All of them
Ans: D
Q.14. Abhijeet, a coiner, delivers counterfeit Company’s rupees to accomplice Balvinder, for the purpose of uttering them. Balvinder sells the rupees to Charanjeet, another utterer, who buys them knowing them to be counterfeit. Charanjeet pays away the rupees for the goods to Dharminder, who receives them, not knowing them to be counterfeit. Dharminder, after receiving the rupees, discovers that they are counterfeit and pays them away as if they were good.
A. Only Dharminder is punishable only under Section 241, IPC
B. Only Balvinder is punishable under Section 239 and 240, IPC
C. Only Charanjeet is punishable under Section 239 and 240, IPC
D. All of them
Ans: D
Q.15. Threatening any person to induce him to refrain from making a legal application for protection from injury is dealt under
A. Section 189 of IPC
B. Section 190 of IPC
C. Section 191 of IPC
D. Section 192 of IPC
Ans: B
Q.16. A, intentionally gives Z a sword cut or club wound sufficient to cause the death of a man in the ordinary course of nature. Z dies in the consequence.
A. A did not intend the death of Z hence is not guilty of murder
B. A is only guilty of inflicting the wound
C. A is guilty of murder
D. None of them
Ans: C
Q.17. A, without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. He did not have any premeditated design to kill any particular individual.
A. A is not guilty of murder
B. A is did not intend to kill any individual in particular
C. A is guilty of murder
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: C
Q.18. A, under the influence of passion excited by the provocation given by Z, intentionally kills Y, Z’s child.
A. A is guilty of murder
B. Z is guilty of murder
C. A is guilty of culpable homicide
D. None of them
Ans: A
Q.19. A is lawfully arrested by Z, a bailiff. A is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest, and kills Z.
A. A is guilty of murder
B. A is guilty of culpable homicide
C. Z is guilty of arresting A
D. None of them
Ans: A
Q.20. A appears as witness before Z, a Magistrate. Z says that he does not believe a word of A’s deposition, and that A has perjured himself. A is moved to sudden passion by these words, and kills Z
A. A is guilty of culpable homicide
B. A is guilty of murder
C. Z is guilty of intentionally using provocative words
D. None of them
Ans: B
Q.21. The accused entered along with others entered the house of the deceased to quarrel over a matter, but the deceased gave lathi blow on his head and in order to protect himself the accused also inflicted injuries on head of deceased which proved fatal. Here:
A. the accused has the right to private defence under Section 96, IPC
B. the deceased is guilty of assaulting the accused under Section 96, IPC
C. the accused is not entitled to the right to private defence under Section 96, IPC
D. None of them
Ans: C
Q.22. Nature of possession of a trespasser on which he can defend his possession against true owner must contain which of the following attributes?
I. the trespasser must be in actual physical possession over the property over a sufficiently long period
II. the possession must be to the knowledge either express or without any attempt at concealment and which contains an element of animus possidendi
III. the process of dispossession of the true owner by the trespasser must be complete and final and must be acquiesced in by the true owner
IV. whether or not the trespasser after having taken possession had grown any crops. If the accused has grown the crops, even the true owner has not right to destroy the crops
A. I, IV
B. Ill, IV
C. II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
Q.23. Knowingly issuing or signing a false certificate relating to any fact of which such certificate is by law admissible in evidence is dealt under
A. Section 195 of IPC
B. Section 196 of IPC
C. Section 197 of IPC
D. Section 198 of IPC
Ans: C
Q.24. Giving or fabricating false evidence with intent to cause any person to be convicted of a capital offence is dealt under
A. Section 194 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans: A
Q.25. Giving or fabricating false evidence with intent to procure conviction of an offence punishable with imprisonment for 7 years or upwards is dealt under
A. Section 193 of IPC
B. Section 194 of IPC
C. Section 195 of IPC
D. Section 196 of IPC
Ans: C
Q.26. Threatening any person to give false evidence, if innocent person is convicted and sentenced in consequence of false evidence, with death or imprisonment for more than seven years is dealt under
A. Section 195 A of IPC
B. Section 196 A of IPC
C. Section 197 A of IPC
D. Section 198 A of IPC
Ans: A
Q.27. Causing disappearance of evidence of an offence committed, or giving false information touching it to screen the offender if a capital offence dealt under
A. Section 199 of IPC
B. Section 200 of IPC
C. Section 201 of IPC
D. Section 202 of IPC
Ans: C
Q.28. According to the following a person abets the doing of a thing, who:
I. instigates any person to do that thing
II. Engages with one or more person or persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing
III. If an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing
IV. Intentionally aids, by and act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing
A. I, IV
B. II, IV
C. IV
D. I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
Q.29. Which of the following is not an ingredient of an offence under Section 109, IPC?
A. abetment of an offence, either by instigation, conspiracy or aiding
B. the commission of the act abetted, in consequence of abetment
C. there must not be any express provision, in this Code for the punishment of such abetment
D. all of them
Ans: D
Q.30. A attempts to pull Z’s nose. Z, in the exercise of the right to private defence lays hold of A to prevent him from doing so. A is moved to sudden and violent passion in consequence and kills Z.
A. A is guilty of provoking Z
B. A is guilty of murder
C. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: B
Q.31. Taking gift, etc, to seven on offender from punishment if the offence be punishable with imprisonment for less than 10 years is dealt under
A. Section 211 of IPC
B. Section 212 of IPC
C. Section 213 of IPC
D. Section 214 of IPC
Ans: D
Q.32. Being hired to take part in an unlawful assembly or riot is dealt under-
A. Section 156 of IPC
B. Section 157 of IPC
C. Section 158 of IPC
D. Section 159 of IPC
Ans. C
Q.33. Committing affray is dealt under-
A. Section 159 of IPC
B. Section 160 of IPC
C. Section 161 of IPC
D. Section 162 of IPC
Ans. B
Q.34. Public servant framing an incorrect document with intent to cause injury is dealt under-
A. Section 166 of IPC
B. Section 167 of IPC
C. Section 168 of IPC
D. Section 169 of IPC
Ans. B
Q.35. Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for property is dealt under-
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans. A
Q.36. Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant with fraudulent intent is dealt under-
A. Section 168 of IPC
B. Section 169 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans. C
Q.37. Undue influence at an election is dealt under-
A. Section 168 F of IPC
B. Section 169 F of IPC
C. Section 170 F of IPC
D. Section 171 F of IPC
Ans. D
38. A offers a bribe to B, a public servant, as a reward for showing A some favour in the exercise of B’s official functions. B accepts the bribe
A. A has abetted the offence define in Section 160, IPC
B. A has abetted the offence define in Section 161, IPC
C. A has abetted the offence define in Section 162, IPC
D. A has abetted the offence define in Section 163, IPC
Ans: B
39. A and B conspire to poison Z. A in pursuance of the conspiracy, procures the poison and delivers it to B in order that he may administer it to Z. B in pursuance of the conspiracy, administers the poison to Z in A’s absence and thereby causes Z’s death.
A. only A is guilty of murder
B. A is only of abetment
C. only B is guilty of murder
D. all of them
Ans: D
40. A instigates B to cause grievous hurt to Z. B, in consequence of the instigation causes grievous hurt to Z. Z dies in consequence. A was well aware that the grievous hurt abetted was likely to cause death.
A. A is guilty of only instigating
B. Only B is guilty of murder
C. Only A is guilty of murder
D. Both A and B are guilty of murder
Ans: D
41. Rape is dealt under
B. Section 377of IPC
C. Section 378 of IPC
D. Section 379 of IPC
Ans: A
42. Consider the two case:
I. A offers a bribe to B, a public servant, as a reward for showing A some favour in the exercise of B’s official functions. B refuses to accept the bribe.
II. A instigates B to give false evidence. However B does not gives false evidence.
Which of the following is true about the above cases?
A. A is not punishable under Section 116, IPC
B. A is punishable under Section 116, IPC
C. A is punishable only under Section 115, IPC
D. None of them
Ans: B
43. Which of the following is true about the above cases?
A. A is not punishable under Section 116, IPC
B. A is punishable under Section 116, IPC
C. A is punishable only under Section 115, IPC
D. None of them
Ans: B
44. A affixes in a public a placard instigating a sect consisting of more than ten members to meet at a certain time and place for the purpose of attacking the members of an adverse sect, while engaged in a procession.
A. A has committed the offence defined Section 114 of IPC
B. A has committed the offence defined Section 115 of IPC
C. A has committed the offence defined Section 116 of IPC
D. A has committed the offence defined Section 117 of IPC
Ans: D
45. Extortion is dealt under
A. Section 381 of IPC
B. Section 382 of IPC
C. Section 383 of IPC
D. Section 384 of IPC
Ans: D
46. A, an officer of police, being bound to give information of all designs to commit robbery which may come to his knowledge, and knowing that B designs to commit robbery, omits to give such information, with intent to so facilitate the commission of that offence.
A. A should be punished under Section 116, IPC
B. A should be punished under Section 117, IPC
C. A should be punished under Section 118, IPC
D. A should be punished under Section 119, IPC
Ans: D
47. A, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, wilfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.
A. A is guilty under Section 176 of IPC
B. A is guilty under Section 177 of IPC
C. A is guilty under Section 178 of IPC
D. A is guilty under Section 179 of IPC
Ans: B
48. Importation of girl from foreign country is dealt under
A. Section 363 B of IPC
B. Section 364 B of IPC
C. Section 365 B of IPC
D. Section 366 B of IPC
Ans: D
49. A, a village watchman, knowing that a considerable body of strangers has passed through his village in order to commit a dacoity in the house of Z, a wealthy merchant residing in a neighbouring place, and being bound, under Clause 5, Section VII, Regulation III, 1821, of the Bengal Code, to give early and punctual information of the above fact tot the officer of the nearest police station, wilfully misinforms the police officer that a body of suspicious characters passed through the village with a view to commit dacoity in a certain distant place in a different direction.
A. A is guilty under Section 173 of IPC
B. A is guilty under Section 175of IPC
C. A is guilty under Section 176 of IPC
D. A is guilty under Section 177 of IPC
Ans: D
50. A, in support of a just claim which B has against Z for one thousand rupees, falsely swears on a trial that he heard Z admit the justice of B’s claim.
A. Z’s evidence is false
B. A’s evidence is false
C. B’s evidence is false
D. None of them
Ans: B
51. Concealing or keeping in confinement a kidnapped person is dealt under
A. Section 367 of IPC
B. Section 368 of IPC
C. Section 369 of IPC
D. Section 370 of IPC
Ans: B
52. Buying or disposing of any person as slave is dealt under
A. Section 367 of IPC
B. Section 368 of IPC
C. Section 369 of IPC
D. Section 370 of IPC
Ans: D
53. If the student and teacher fall in love, teacher cannot be said to have taken undue advantage of his position especially when the offence is committed outside the school. In which of the following it was held that the conviction of the teacher was not proper?
A. Omkar Prasad Verma v. State of M.P. (2007)
B. Braja Mohan Pradhan v. State of Orissa (1985)
C. Ramkrishna Mandal v. Kamal Kanti Chakraborty (1990)
D. Ram Ekbal Rai v. Jaldhari Pandey (1972)
Ans: A
54. A, an interpreter or translator, gives or certifies as a true interpretation or translation of a statement or document, which he is bound by the oath to interpret or translate truly, that which is not and which he does not believe to be a true interpretation or translation.
A. A has not given false evidence
B. A does not know how to interpret
C. A has given false evidence
D. None of them
Ans: C
55. A makes a false entry in his shop book for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in a court of Justice.
A. A has committed an offence under Section 420, IPC
B. A has fabricated false evidence
C. A has given false evidence
D. None of them
Ans: B
56. Obstructing public servant in discharge of his public functions is dealt under
A. Section 183 of IPC
B. Section 184 of IPC
C. Section 185 of IPC
D. Section 186 of IPC
Ans: D
57. Wilfully neglecting to aid a public servant who demand aid in the execution of process, the prevention of offences, etc is dealt under
A. Section 186 of IPC
B. Section 187ofIPC
C. Section 188 of IPC
D. Section 189 of IPC
Ans: B
58. Giving or fabricating false evidence in any other case is dealt under
A. Section 190 of IPC
B. Section 191 of IPC
C. Section 192 of IPC
D. Section 193 of IPC
Ans: D
59. A, in an enquiry before an officer deputed by a Court of Justice to ascertain on the spot the boundaries of land, makes on oath a statement which he knows to be false.
A. A is innocent
B. A has not given false evidence
C. A has given false evidence
D. A has fabricated false evidence
Ans: C
60. A gives false evidence before a Court of Justice, intending hereby to cause Z to be convicted of a dacoity.
A. A is liable to rigorous imprisonment
B. A is liable to imprisonment for life or imprisonment
C. A is liable to a fine
D. All of them
Ans: D
61. X enters into a room where D was all alone and all other ingress was closed. After sometime X comes out of the room with multiple incised injuries on his person and D is found dead killed by one blow with a sharp cutting weapon lying by his side. X is mute, cannot write or articulate. Which of the following inference can be drawn from the fact of the situation?
A. D inflicted the injuries on X and hence committed the offence of affecting the body of X and in the process was done to death by one fatal blow
B. X had a reasonable apprehension of death or of grievous hurt by D
C. X had to deal the blow to save his life and limb and he exercised the right to private defence
D. All of them
Ans. D
62. Having possession of a document, knowing it to forgo, with intent to use it as genuine, if the document is one of the description mentioned in section 467 if the Indian Penal Code is dealt under-
A. Section 474 of IPC
B. Section 475 of IPC
C. Section 476 of IPC
D. Section 477 of IPC
Ans. A
63. Making or possessing machinery, instrument or material for forging or counterfeiting currency-notes or bank notes is dealt under-
A. Section 489 D of IPC
B. Section 489 E of IPC
C. Section 490 of IPC
D. Section 491 of IPC
Ans. A
64. In Section 11 of IPC the word ‘person’ indicates:
A. any company incorporated or not
B. any associations incorporated or not
C. body of persons incorporated or not
D. all of them
Ans. D
65. In a certain case the accused dealing with chemical material was charged under Section 138 Negotiable Instruments Act and they pleaded in their defence that- (i) firm has to be indicted and then only the proprietor can be held guilty and (ii) in absence of impleading proprietary concern as complainant as well as accused the case is not maintainable.
A. point (i) is valid for the case but point (ii) is not valid
B. point (i) is not valid while point (ii) is valid
C. both point (i) and (ii) are valid
D. none of them is valid
Ans. A
66. Putting or attempting to put in fear or injury, in order to commit extortion is dealt under-
A. Section 385 of IPC
B. Section 386 of IPC
C. Section 387 of IPC
D. Section 388 of IPC
Ans. A
67. The exclusion of the state of Jammu and Kashmir from “India” in Section 18 of IPC:
A. is a violation of Article 1 and First Schedule of the Constitution of India
B. is done to treat Jammu and Kashmir as foreign territory
C. is done only for the purpose of the application of Indian Penal Code
D. is done because it is a disputed land
Ans. C
68. Attempt to commit robbery is dealt under-
A. Section 390 of IPC
B. Section 391 of IPC
C. Section 392 of IPC
D. Section 393 of IPC
Ans. D
69. Intercourse by Superintendent of jail, remand home, etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 376 C of IPC
B. Section 377 C of IPC
C. Section 378 C of IPC
D. Section 379 C of IPC
Ans. A
70. Which of the following is not a public servant as per Section 21 of IPC?
A. Judge
B. Juryman
C. Government Company
D. Municipal Commissioner
Ans. C
71. Which of the following can help in determining that a person is an officer of Government as per Section 21 of IPC?
A. he is the service or pay of the Government
B. he is an officer
C. he is entrusted with the performance of any public duty
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
72. Which of the following test must be satisfied to employ a High Court judge in connection with the affairs of the Union?
A. the authority to remove must be the Central Government
B. the person at the relevant time must have been employed in connection with the affairs of the Union
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
73. As per Section 21 of IPC the bar of prosecution shall apply, not and only when?
A. it is proved that he was a public servant removable from his office only with the sanction of the Central or State Government
B. if he has sufficient cause to believe that thing but not otherwise
C. the offence levelled against him must have been committed by him while acting or discharging his official duties as such
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
74. D, a disabled man in receipt of income support, sought judicial review of a finding of wilful refusal or culpable neglect relating to his failure to pay community charge arrears and of justices subsequent decision to issue a warrant for his committal to prison. The accused pleaded that justices were required to find culpable neglect or wilful refusal in respect of each of the three financial years separately and his absence from hearing due to hospital appointment should not have been considered a ground for issuing the warrant.
A. the decision of the justices was perfectly reasonable
B. the decision of the justices was not reasonable
C. medical ground is no excuse for failure to pay community charge arrears
D. Both (A) and (C)
75. A boy of 13 committed rape on a child 2 years. The accused should be awarded-
A. one year R.I. with fine of Rs. 2000
B. three year R.I with fine of Rs. 5000
C. only one year R.I.
D. only fine of Rs. 5000
Ans. A
76. Abetment of any offence, if abettor is present when offence is committed dealt under-
A. Section 114 of IPC
B. Section 115 of IPC
C. Section 116 of IPC
D. Section 117 of IPC
Ans. A
77. Concealing a design to commit an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, if the offence be committed is dealt under-
A. Section 117 of IPC
B. Section 118 of IPC
C. Section 119 of IPC
D. Section 120 of IPC
Ans. B
78. A public servant concealing a design to commit an offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be committed dealt under-
A. Section 117 of IPC
B. Section 118 of IPC
C. Section 119 of IPC
D. Section 120 of IPC
Ans. C
79. Which of the following punishment an offender is liable to under the provision of Section 53, IPC –
A. Death and imprisonment for life
B. Imprisonment and fine
C. Forfeiture of property
D. all of them
Ans. D
80. X is an owner of a property and he owe some money to Y. X has not been able to pay the due and Y forcibly took possession of his property against his will to pressurise him into paying up his debts.
A. Y has all the authority to do so
B. X no longer has right over his property
C. Y is guilty of theft
D. None of them
Ans. C
81. In a certain case in Delhi the accused proposed marriage of his son with the gentleman of a daughter who was pregnant with someone else’s child (a fact that has not been concealed). However he concealed the fact that his son is suffering from a mental disorder the gentleman marries his daughter to his son then the accused:
A. cannot be hold guilty because even the gentleman’s daughter is at fault
B. is prima facie guilty of cheating due to the element of wrongful gain involved
C. cannot be accused as it the gentleman’s responsible to the ascertain complete fact concerning the would be bridegroom
D. none of them
Ans. B
82. Which of the following is true of intent of defraud?
A. a general intention to defraud, without the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person on wrongful loss to another
B. to prove intention of defraud, it is not at all necessary that there should have been some persons defrauded, or who possibly might have been defrauded by his act
C. the word defraud is of double meaning
D. all of them
Ans. D
83. The word ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC includes any matter expressed or described upon by any substance:
A. by means of letters, figures or marks only
B. by more than one of those means intended to be used, or which may be used, as evidence of that matter
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans. C
84. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing that it was in the possession of a declosed person at his death, and that it has not since been in the possession of any person legally entitled to it and if the offender at the time of such person’s declose was employed by him as a clerk or servant is dealt under-
A. Section 401 of IPC
B. Section 402 of IPC
C. Section 403 of IPC
D. Section 404 of IPC
Ans. D
85. Which of the following can be called a ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC?
A. banker’s cheque
B. power of attorney
C. map
D. all of them
Ans. D
86. Which of the following conditions are necessary to fulfill the requirements of Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code?
A. the person must be present on the scene of occurrence
B. there must a prior concert or a pre-arranged plan
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
87. Making preparation to commit dacoity is dealt under-
A. Section 398 of IPC
B. Section 399 of IPC
C. Section 400 of IPC
D. Section 401 of IPC
Ans. B
88. Which of the following judgment is the correct judgment regarding the mentioned case?
The three accused armed with firearms and Accused 1 with lathi came to the shot of the incident for the purpose of avenging the old enmity. It was alleged that it was on the exhortation made by the Accused 1, not to spare the deceased that the other accused started firing at the deceased. It was held that when all the accused had reached the place of incident for the purpose of avenging the old enmity nurtured by them should they wait for Accused 1 to make exhortation to use the words “don’t allow him to flee and don’t spare him this time.”
A. apart from Accused 1 all others were convicted u/ss. 302/34
B. all of them were convicted u/ss. 302/34
C. Accused 1 was accordingly acquitted, as no common intention could be attributed to him.
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
89. Unlawful compulsory labour is dealt under-
A. Section 371 of IPC
B. Section 372 of IPC
C. Section 373 of IPC
D. Section 374 of IPC
Ans. D
90. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled for conviction on circumstantial evidence?
A. the circumstances from which the conclusion is to be drawn should be fully established and not “may be established”
B. the circumstances must be of a conclusive nature and tendency
C. it should exclude every possible hypothesis except the one to be proved
D. all of them
Ans. D
91. Using a false property mark with intent to deceive or injure any person is dealt under-
A. Section 480 of IPC
B. Section 481 of IPC
C. Section 482 of IPC
D. Section 483 of IPC
Ans. C
92. Which of the following explains the ‘sense of expression once explained’?
A. Section 6 and Section 7 of IPC
B. Section 6 of IPC
C. Section 7 of IPC
D. None of them
Ans. C
93. Which of the following is a limitation with vicarious liability?
A. certain crimes because of their nature cannot be committed by a corporation
B. corporal punishment cannot be imposed on a corporation
C. cannot be convicted of manslaughter
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
94. Criminal liability of a corporation arises when:
A. an offence is committed in the course of corporation’s business by the person in control of its affairs
B. an offence is committed in the course of corporation’s business by a person in control whose thought and intent becomes thought and intent of the corporation
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them
Ans. C
95. Extortion by a putting a person in fear of death or grievous is dealt under-
A. Section 385 of IPC
B. Section 386 of IPC
C. Section 387 of IPC
D. Section 388 of IPC
Ans. B
96. Which of the following is true is of the word “Judge” under Section 19 of IPC?
A. denotes a person officially designated as a Judge
B. denotes every person who is empowered by law to give a definitive judgment in any legal proceeding, civil or criminal
C. denotes of a body of persons which is empowered by the law to give judgment
D. all of them
Ans. D
97. Person voluntarily causing hurt in committing or attempting to commit robbery, or any other person jointly concerned in such robbery is dealt under-
A. Section 394 of IPC
B. Section 395 of IPC
C. Section 396 of IPC
D. Section 397 of IPC
Ans. A
98. Which of the following does not fall under the category of the word “Judge” as coined in Section 19?
A. Magistrate
B. Member of a Panchayat
C. Collector
D. Businessman
Ans. D
99. Which of the following amendment added Clause 11 and Explanation 4 in Section 21 of IPC?
A. Act XXXIX, 1920
B. Adaptation of Laws Order, 1950
C. Act II, 1950
D. Anti-Corruption Act, 1964
Ans. B
100. In which of the following case the principle was held by the Supreme Court that where a subsequent Act incorporates provisions of a previous act, the burrowed provisions become an integral and independent part of the subsequent Act and are totally unaffected by any repeal or amendment in the Prevention Act, does not apply?
A. where the subsequent Act and the previous Act are supplemental to each other
B. where the two Acts are pari material and where the amendment of the previous Act either expressly or by necessary intendment, applies the said provisions to the subsequent Act
C. where the amendment in the previous Act if not imported into the subsequent Act would render the Act unworkable and ineffectual
D. all of them
Ans. D
101. Which of the following is not relevant to the practice and procedures of Section 22 of IPC?
A. does not provide definition of “public servant”
B. no court can take cognizance of any offence against a public servant except with the previous sanction of the Central Government or the State Government as per the provisions of Section 197 Cr. P.C
C. the protection is available to a person, if on the date of commission of offence he was public servant irrespective of his subsequent retirement, resignation, dismissal or even removal
D. deals with extra territorial applicability but does not define any substantive offence or procedure
Ans. D
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