201 - 300 | MCQ | Question and Answer in LAW Exam | AIBE | APP | Judiciary exams

Q - 203 : Consider the following statements: The Indian constitution is 
1. Unwritten constitution 
2. Written constitution 
3. Largely based on government of India Act, 1935

A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 204 : Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism: 

1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state. 

2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally. 

3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with Go
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Ans : B

Q - 205 : Which one is not correctly matched?
A. Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B. Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C. conscience Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D. (d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Ans : C

Q - 206 : The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A. Prime Minister
B. Vice- President
C. Chief Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans : A

Q - 207 : An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India: 

1. Ex post facto law 

2. Safeguard against arrest and detention 

3. Double jeopardy. Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A. Codes: 1, 3, 2
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 1,3
Ans : A

Q - 208 : Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A. 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B. 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C. 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D. 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Ans : C

Q - 209 : Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case. abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case. liability
A. Codes: A B C D 2 4 1 3
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 2 4 3 1
D. 4 2 1 3
Ans : C

Q - 210 : A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. Nine months
D. Twelve months
Ans : D

Q - 211 : Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B. Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C. Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D. Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Ans : A

Q - 212 : Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A. A B C D 2 4 1 3
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 2 4 3 1
D. 4 2 1 3
Ans : C


Q - 214 : List-I List-II Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 

1. Doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights Maneka Gandhi 

2. Religious freedom vs. UOI Rev. Stanilaus 

3. Right to life and personal liberty vs. State of MP Bashesher Nath 

4. Reservation for backward classes vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A. A B C D 4 2 3 1
B. 5 4 3 2
C. 4 3 2 1
D. 5 3 2 1
Ans : C

Q - 215 : List-I List-II Independence of judiciary 

1. Administrative adjudication Executive legislation 

2. Parliamentary form of government Quasi-judicial functions 

3. Appointment and transfer of judges Collective responsibility 

4. Ordinance
A. A B C D 2 1 4 3
B. 3 4 1 2
C. 2 4 1 3
D. 3 I 4 2
Ans : B

Q - 216 : The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Ans : A

Q - 218 : The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are: 

1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture. 

2. To safeguard private property. 

3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Ans : D

Q - 219 : If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Ans : A

Q - 220 : Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A. It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B. It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C. It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D. It allocates seats in the council of states.
Ans : D

Q - 221 : The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A. Fundamental rights
B. DPSP
C. List of languages recognised by the constitution
D. Number of states and UTS
Ans : C

Q - 222 : Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A. 2nd schedule
B. 5th schedule
C. 8th schedule
D. 10th schedule
Ans : D

Q - 223 : At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 11
Ans : A

Q - 224 : The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Ans : C

Q - 225 : When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A. The President
B. The prime minister
C. The chief justice of India
D. Council of ministers
Ans : A

Q - 226 : The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A. France
B. USA
C. United Kingdom
D. None of these
Ans : B

Q - 227 : Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A. The election commission
B. President
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Prime minister
Ans : B

Q - 228 : Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A. Part IX
B. Part IX-A
C. Part X
D. Part X-A
Ans : B

Q - 229 : It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental rights
C. Fundamental duties
D. Directive principles of state policy
Ans : A

Q - 230 : Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
A. The President
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D. Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Ans : D

Q - 231 : Preamble to the constitution of India:
A. is not a Part of the constitution.
B. Indicates the objectives to be achieve
D.
C. Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D. Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Ans : C

Q - 232 : The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
A. A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B. A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C. A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D. Not a Part of the constitution.
Ans : B

Q - 233 : The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
A. USA
B. United Nations
C. United Kingdom
D. Ireland
Ans : D

Q - 234 : The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India 

(a) Equality of status and opportunity 

(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship. 

(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual. 

(d) Unity and integrity of the nation . Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?
A. 5,1,2,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 3,1,2,5,4
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Ans : B

Q - 235 : Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
A. Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B. Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C. Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D. Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Ans : A

Q - 236 : The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A. Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B. Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C. Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D. Security of service to government servants .
Ans : C

Q - 237 : Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A. 1st Amendment Act
B. 24th Amendment Act
C. 42nd Amendment Act
D. 44th Amendment Act
Ans : C

Q - 238 : Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Never
Ans : C

Q - 239 : The word secular denotes:
A. Keeping away from all religions.
B. Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C. Belief in one god
D. Practicing different religions
Ans : B

Q - 240 : The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A. Prohibit concentration of wealth
B. Distribute equitably the natural resources
C. Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D. That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Ans : D

Q - 241 : In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended? 

1. External Aggression 

2. Internal Emergency 

3. When Martial Law is in force
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D

Q - 242 : Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India. 1. Right to Education 2. Right to Information 3. Right to Vote
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 only
Ans : B

Q - 243 : Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A. Against arbitrary legislative action.
B. Against arbitrary executive action.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : C

Q - 244 : Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct: 

1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution 2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act. 

3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : A

Q - 245 : Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Article 32. 

1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency. 

2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR 

3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A. I only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Ans : B

Q - 246 : Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."? 1. Right to speedy trial. 

2. Right against delayed execution. 

3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C

Q - 247 : Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A. Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B. Certiorari & Mandamus.
C. Prohibition & Mandamus.
D. Prohibition & Certiorari.
Ans : B

Q - 248 : The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because: 

1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. 

2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A. I only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : C

Q - 249 : Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 

1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy. 

2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy. 

3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : B

Q - 250 : Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 

1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles. 

2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles. 

3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
A. 1 and 3
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : B

Q - 251 : Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill? 

1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament. 

2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses. 

3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. I only
Ans : B

Q - 252 : The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Ans : A

Q - 253 : Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution? 

1. Supremacy of the Constitution. 

2. Rigid Constitution. 

3. Independent Judiciary.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D

Q - 254 : Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations? 

1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states. 

2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre 

3. Residuary powers are assigned to the parliament.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : D

Q - 255 : Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations? 

1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a state on any matter. 

2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states. 

3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : C

Q - 256 : Which of the following statements are correct? 

1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President. 

2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President. 

3. Finance commission is mentioned under Art. 280 of the constitution.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Ans : C

Q - 257 : Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
A. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special majority.
B. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
C. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D. None of these
Ans : A

Q - 258 : Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a state (Article 356)? 

1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority. 

2. Serious maladministration in the state. 

3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : A

Q - 259 : Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360)? 

1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months. 

2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by simple majority. 

3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : B

Q - 260 : The Electoral College for President's election consist of: 

1. Elected members of both the houses of Parliament. 

2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies. 

3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C

Q - 261 : When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides that
A. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Ans : C

Q - 262 : With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
A. The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
B. The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
C. The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
D. The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
Ans : C

Q - 263 : The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are 1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws. 

2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Ans : B

Q - 264 : The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
A. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
Ans : D

Q - 265 : The Council of Ministers' does not consist of: 

1. Deputy Ministers. 

2. Parliamentary Secretaries. 

3. Deputy Chairman-Planning Commission.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of these
Ans : D

Q - 266 : The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by: 

1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only. 

2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State legislative assembly or electoral college of the UT as the case may be. 

3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote. 

4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Ans : C

Q - 267 : Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person to be chosen a member of Parliament? 1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC/ST, he must be a member of a SC/ST in any state or Union Territory. 

2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati. 

3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 268 : Which of the following statements are correct? 

1. If an MLA is elected to be an MP, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days. 

2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Ans : C

Q - 269 : As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is concerned with
A. to discover new rules
B. to reflect all the rules already known
C. to derive rules from authority and apply them to problems
D. logi
C.
Ans : B

Q - 270 : Who said jurisprudence is formal science of positive law?
A. Bentham
B. Stone
C. Austin
D. Holland
Ans : D

Q - 271 : Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?
A. Bentham
B. Stone
C. Austin
D. Holland
Ans : B

Q - 272 : Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?
A. R. Dworkin
B. Hart
C. Bentham
D. Tom Bingham
Ans : A

Q - 273 : The concept of law depends largely on the:
A. social values
B. accepted norms
C. behavioural pattern of the particular society at a given time
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 274 : Law consists of social norms which are:
A. coercive
B. ethical
C. non-coercive
D. religious
Ans : A

Q - 275 : Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
A. Salmond
B. Holland
C. Gray
D. Paton
Ans : A

Q - 276 : The expression ‘law’ in jurisprudence is mostly used to denote
A. Positive law
B. Negative law
C. Fundamental legal principles
D. Legal systems
Ans : C

Q - 277 : Austin's law is:
A. command of sovereign
B. command of God
C. command of people
D. command of constitution
Ans : A

Q - 278 : Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A. Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B. Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is done with a feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D. If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in that society.
Ans : C

Q - 279 : Mark the incorrect statement:
A. Law do not always command .but confers privileges also e.g., Right to make a will.
B. The notion of command is applicable to modern social/welfare legislation.
C. Austin's notion that sovereignty indivisible is falsified by federal constitutions e.g., India, USA
D. Austin's insistence on sanctions as a mark of law conceals and distorts the real character and functions of law in a community.
Ans : B

Q - 280 : Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-optional character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation, legislation and adjudication?
A. Hart
B. Salmond
C. Kelsen
D. Austin
Ans : A

Q - 281 : Which of the following is not a statement from Hart's theory?
A. Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
B. The union of the primary and secondary rules constitute the core of a legal system.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is done with a feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
D. The law is a normative and not a natural science.
Ans : D

Q - 282 : Mark the incorrect statement:
A. Positive law is made by sovereign and positive morality not by it.
B. Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by Go
D.
C. Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the people.
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 283 : The pure theory of law advocated by Kelsen implies that:
A. a theory which excludes everything which is strictly not law
B. a theory which includes everything which is law.
C. a theory which includes everything which is strictly law.
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 284 : According to Kelsen, the law is a system of behavioural norms which can be traced back to some grundnorms or basic norms from which they derive their existence. The grundnorm: I must be efficacious 

II. The Grundnorm is not deduced from anything else but is assumed as an initial hypothesis. 

III. should secure for itself a minimum of effectiveness and when it ceases to derive minimum of support of people, it is replaced by some other grundnorm. Codes:
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II
Ans : C

Q - 285 : Mark the incorrect option:
A. The province of jurisprudence determined - Austin
B. The concept of law - Hart
C. Vienna school of legal thought - Kelsen
D. None of the above.
Ans : D

Q - 286 : Mark the correct statement:
A. Natural law approach is not realistic and practical approach.
B. Natural law principles have inspired positive law, constitution and international law.
C. Naturalists bid to introduce moral element into a criterion of identification and laws have the effect of founding law on the value judgement.
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 287 : The philosophical school seeks to investigate:
A. quest of the law
B. purpose for which a particular law has been enacted
C. the philosophical basis of the law
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 288 : Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of individual but by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This statement belongs to:
A. Analytical school
B. Historical school
C. Sociological school
D. None of the above
Ans : C

Q - 289 : Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 

I. Fuller - inner morality 

II. Bentham - utilitarianism 

III. Maine - status of contract 

IV. Duguit - social solidarity 

V. Hart -rules on fundamentals of a legal system Codes:
A. None except I
B. None except III
C. None except IV
D. None of the above
Ans : D

Q - 290 : Mark the correct option:
A. Sources of law - Salmond
B. Nature and sources of law - Gray
C. (c) Des recht des besitzes - Savigny
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 291 : A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient under the English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A. is same
B. does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its validity
C. antiquity is not essential
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 292 : The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A. interpretation of statute
B. construction of statute
C. both (a) and (b)
D. harmonization of statute
Ans : A

Q - 293 : It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature should not delegate to a subordinate body the power make rules on:
A. technical matter
B. policy matter
C. matter of inclusion and exclusion
D. date of commencement of a statute
Ans : B

Q - 294 : Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated legislation?
A. Parliamentary control
B. Judicial control
C. Publication of delegated legislation
D. Registration of delegated legislation
Ans : D

Q - 295 : Mark the incorrect option:
A. Literal rule - grammatical or plain meaning rule
B. Golden rule - purpose of legislation
C. Harmonious construction rule - social welfare legislation
D. Literal rule - strict interpretation
Ans : C

Q - 296 : Which rule of interpretation is employed in the social welfare legislation?
A. Literal rule
B. Golden rule
C. Harmonious construction rule
D. Liberal or beneficial construction rule
Ans : D

Q - 297 : Which rule of construction is applied in the construction of penal statutes?
A. Literal rule
B. Golden rule
C. Harmonious construction rule
D. Liberal rule
Ans : A

Q - 298 : The maxim Ejusdem generis means:
A. of the same kind or nature
B. when particular words are followed by general words, the general words are constructed as limited to things of the same kind as specified in the particular words
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Ans : C

Q - 299 : Which of the following is an internal aid to construction of a statute?
A. Title
B. Preamble
C. Proviso and explanation
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 300 : The maxim Generalia specialibus non deterogant means:
A. a general later law does not abrogate an earlier special law by mere implication.
B. a general later law abrogates an earlier special law by mere implication.
C. a special later law does not abrogate an earlier general law by mere implication.
D. None of the above
Ans : A

101 - 200 | MCQ | Question and Answer in LAW Exam | AIBE | APP | Judiciary exams

Q - 101 : The tenancy y of an immovable property is monthly. In order to terminate the lease of it, a notice of which period shall be given –

A. One month
B. Two month
C. Six month
D. Fifteen days
Ans : D

Q - 102 : Interpleader suit is a suit –
A. Between two advocates
B. Between Union Govt. Pleader and State Govt. Pleader
C. Instituted by a person who has no interest in the subject matter
D. Instituted by a person who has interest in the subject matter
Ans : C

Q - 103 : Where the plaint is not filed in duplicate, the plaint may be –
A. Returned by the Court
B. Rejected by the Court
C. Dismissed by the Court
D. Admitted by the Court
Ans : B

Q - 104 : Where the plaint is not filed in duplicate, the plaint may be –
A. Returned by the Court
B. Rejected by the Court
C. Dismissed by the Court
D. Admitted by the Court
Ans : B

Q - 105 : In a suit against the State Government, who may sign the plaint on behalf of the Government ?
A. Governor of the State
B. Chief Minister of the State
C. Chief Secretary of the State
D. A person who by a general or special order appointed in this behalf by the Government
Ans : C

Q - 106 : The Court shall not grant temporary injection where –
A. Any property, in dispute, in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any party
B. Where plaintiff can be compensated by money
C. That the defendant threatened to remove or dispose of the property with a view to defrauding his creditors
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 107 : The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the person is accomplished, be returned or otherwise dispose of according to the direction of the person delivering them, is a contract of –
A. Guarantee
B. Bailment
C. Indemnity
D. None of these
Ans : B

Q - 108 : Which contract is void an initio?
A. A contracts to let her daughter on hire to B for concubinage
B. While entering into contract to sell a cow, A disclosed B that the cow gives five litres milk in a day whereas it gives four litres in a day
C. At the time of contract to selling a car, is 20 km per litre whereas its mileage is 18 km per litre
D. At the time of contract, A told B that the area of his house is 1400 sq. feet but on measurement the area of the house is found 1398 sq. feet
Ans : A

Q - 109 : A person is dispossessed of an immovable property without due course of law. When can he bring a suit for recovery of possession under Section 6 of the Act period ?
A. One year
B. Two year
C. Six months
D. Nine months
Ans : C

Q - 110 : In which case, the court can grant an injuction?
A. To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding
B. To restrain any person from insitituting a criminal matter
C. To restrain any person from dispossession by force
D. To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
Ans : C

Q - 111 : The provisions of Section 5 of the Act (Extension of prescribed period) are not applicable to –
A. Appeals
B. Revisions
C. Suits
D. Applications
Ans : C

Q - 112 : The period of limitation of a suit for recovery of arrears of rent from the due date shall be –
A. One Year
B. Two Years
C. Three Years
D. Five years
Ans : C

Q - 113 : Right to life and Liberty is ensured under –
A. Article 21 of the Constitution India
B. Article 36
C. Article 268
D. None of these
Ans : A

Q - 114 : How many times has the preamble to the Constitution of India been amended?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. Four
Ans : A

Q - 115 : Article 360 to the Constitution of India deals with the provisions as to –
A. Financial Emergency
B. National Emergency
C. Presidential rule in any state
D. None of these
Ans : A

Q - 116 : The idea of Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity as laid down in the preamble to the Constitution of India have been borrowed from –
A. French Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. English Constitution
D. Constitution of South Africa
Ans : A

Q - 117 : The Governor of a state is empowered to grant pardons et
C. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases under?
A. Article 261
B. Article 161
C. Article 361
D. Article 368
Ans : B

Q - 118 : A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under –
A. Article 20
B. Article 226
C. Article 32
D. Article 22
Ans : B

Q - 119 : Preamble of the Constitution declares India as –
A. A socialist Democratic Republic
B. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
C. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
D. None of these
Ans : B

Q - 120 : If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is trouble exclusively by the court of session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.
C. postponing the issue of process against the accused –
A. Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
B. May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
C. Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his withness and examine them on Oath.
D. Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session.
Ans : C

Q - 121 : ………………… of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘Murder’
A. Section 299
B. Section 300
C. Section 301
D. Section 302
Ans : B

Q - 122 : A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an –
A. Unmarried woman
B. Married woman except his wife
C. Any women accept his wife
D. Unmarried Woman without her consent
Ans : B

Q - 123 : Copies made from or compared with the original is –
A. Primary evidence
B. Secondary evidence
C. Inadmissible evidence
D. None of these
Ans : B

Q - 124 : The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay –
A. Dying declaration
B. Res gestate
C. Medical Expert’s opinion
D. Confession
Ans : C

Q - 125 : The relief provided under the Specific Relief Act, is –
A. Discretionary
B. Mandatory
C. Statutory
D. Obligatory
Ans : C

Q - 126 : Find out the correct statement Specific Relief can be granted –
A. For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law
B. For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil rights
C. Only for enforcing penal law
D. For enforcing civil rights and the penal law
Ans : A

Q - 127 : Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions.
A. Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
B. Such as are to continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court
C. Regulated by the code of civil procedure
D. Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit
Ans : D

Q - 128 : Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically reforced as per the provision of Section 14 of the Act?
A. Execution of a formal deed of partnership
B. Contract for the construction of any building or execution of any other work on land
C. Contract which is determinable in its nature
D. Contract to execute a mortage or furnish any other security for repayment of any loan which the borrower is not willing to repay at once
Ans : C

Q - 129 : An application for amendment of pleading is filed under –
A. Order 6 Rule 17
B. Order 6 rule 5
C. Order 38 rule 5
D. Order 21 rule 1
Ans : A

Q - 130 : Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International Convenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights? (a) Right to work (b) Right to adequate food (C) Right to self-determination (D) Right to privacy Select the Answer using the code given below :
A. 1and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Ans : C

Q - 131 : Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International covenant on Civil and Political Rights? 1. Right to leave any country including his own and to return to his country. 2. Protection against torture and other forms of cruel and inhumane or degrading treatment or punishment. 3. Right to move the International Court of justice. 4. Right to be a member of the UN. Select the Answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 4
Ans : B

Q - 132 : Which one of the following statements does not occur in Article 1 of the Univeral Declaration of Human Rights?
A. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights
B. They are endowed with reason and conscience
C. They should always live together peacefully
D. They should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood
Ans : C

Q - 133 : Consider the following statements: 1. Jurisdiction of the International Court of justice in voluntary and obligatory. 2. Jurisdiction of the International Court of justice can be imposed on Member Nations of the UN. 3. General Assembly and Security Council may refer a matter toe International Court of justice advice. 4. International Court of justice is court of appeal from Supreme court of Member Nations. Which of the two from the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Ans : A

Q - 134 : Which one of the following is not included in the UN Charter as an objective of the United Nations?
A. To protect the sovereignty of the member states
B. To avoid war as a means for settlements of International disputes
C. Development of human personality
D. To ensure respect for international obligations arising from treaties and other forms of International Law.
Ans : C

Q - 135 : Consider the following statements : The Economic and Social Council of the U.N. : 1. may prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on subjects falling within its competence. 2. may call international conference on matters falling within its competence. 3. may appoint the members of Human Rights Committee. 4. may make recommendations for promoting respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental freedom. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 4
Ans : D

Q - 136 : Which one of the following statements is correct? De facto recognition of a foreign government :
A. is as conclusively binding, while it lasts, as de jure recognition
B. is conclusive
C. is always equal to de jure recognition
D. has no legal effects
Ans : A

Q - 137 : What is an act of recognition to new territorial titles or territorial changes brought out by use of force or any other act of doubtful character depriving the rightful claimant thereto, commonly called?
A. Estrada Doctrine
B. Stimpsons Doctrine
C. Calvo Doctrine
D. Drago Doctrine
Ans : B

Q - 138 : Arrange the following sources of International Law in the preferential sequence in which they are applied by International Court of justice while deciding such disputes as are submitted to it? 1. General international convention. 2. General principles of law recognised by civilized nations 3. International customs 4. Judicial decisions of International tribunals Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 4,3,2,1
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 4,2,3,1
Ans : C

Q - 139 : "Universal respect for, and observance of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms for all without distinction as to race, sex language of religion". Which one of the following documents contains the above?
A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. UN Charter
C. European Covenant on Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms
D. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Ans : A

Q - 140 : Which one of the following is not a source of International Law?
A. Constitution of sovereign states
B. Treaties
C. International conventions
D. International customs and practices
Ans : A

Q - 141 : Which of the following is an element of Ihering theory of possession?
A. Overemphasis on the element of animus
B. Equal emphasis on the elements of animus and corpus
C. Owner like appearance in relation to a thing
D. Immediate physical power to exclude any foreign agency.
Ans : C

Q - 142 : Ownership without possession can be termed as which one of the following?
A. No ownership
B. Quasi ownership
C. Incomplete ownership
D. No-corporeal ownership
Ans : D

Q - 143 : Which one out of the following statements is not correct with reference to Savigny's theory of Volksgeist?
A. Law cannot be universal or general in character
B. Law is found and not made
C. Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of people
D. Law is an instrument of social change and Social reform
Ans : D

Q - 144 : Who among the following propounded the theory of possession which lays stress not on animus, but on de facto control?
A. Salmond
B. Pollock
C. Holmes
D. jhering
Ans : B

Q - 145 : 'A' borrowed a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from 'B' , which he did not repay for a period of three years. Now which one of the following rights does 'B' have against 'A' ?
A. Perfect rights
B. Imperfect rights
C. Proprietary rights
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 146 : What do Rights in re-aliena mean?
A. Rights in the things of others
B. Rights in one's own things
C. Rights relating to property
D. Rights to receive damages
Ans : A

Q - 147 : Match List-l with List-ll and select the Answer from the codes given below the List : List - I List - II A supreme Legislation
B.Executive Legislation
C.Debated Legislation
D.Conditional Legislation 1. Law based on discretion of the authority 2. Law enacted by authority other than legislature 3.Law enacted by the legislation 4.Ordinance issued by the resident/ Governer Law made by judges while the case Codes :
A. A B C D 3 4 2 1
B. 2 1 5 4
C. 3 1 2 4
D. 2 4 5 1
Ans : A

Q - 148 : Who among the following divided the sources of law into formal sources and material sources?
A. Allen
B. Keeton
C. Salmond
D. Gray
Ans : C

Q - 149 : Why is the expiatory theory of punishment obsolete now?
A. It does not empower the State to impose punish
B. It is incapable to reform the wrong doer
C. It is based on moral doctrines
D. It enlarges the limits of jurisprudence
Ans : C

Q - 150 : Eugen Ehrlich is a well Known jurist of sociological school of jurisprudence. Which one of the following statements may not be attributed to the theory propounded by him?
A. Law is derived from social facts
B. Law depends on social compulsion
C. Three is a 'living law' underlying the formal rule of the legal system
D. State law has significant influence on shaping and development of living law
Ans : D

Q - 151 : Balancing of social interests and the doctrines of social engineering is the greatest contribution to sociological school. This is attributed to whom?
A. Duguit
B. Roscoe Pound
C. Savigny
D. jhering.
Ans : B

Q - 152 : Which of the following factors are responsible for the resurgence in favour of natural law thinking in the twentieth century? 1. The decline in social and economic stability in the twentieth century 2. The expansion in government activity 3. Growth of weapons of destruction and policies of genocide 4. Growing inclination of people towards religion Select the Answer using the codes given below:
A. 2,3 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Ans : C

Q - 153 : Match List-l (jurists) with List-ll (View About Law/jurisprudence) and select the Answer using the codes given below the Lists: List -I (Jurists) List -II (View About Law/ Jurisprudence)
A. Bentham
B. Austin
C. Kelsen
D.Hart 1. Concept of Law 2.Pure theory of law 3.Limits of Jurisprudence defined 4. Province of jurisprudence determined 5.Concept of living lawa Codes :
A. A B C D 1 2 5 3
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 1 4 2 3
D. 3 2 5 1
Ans : B

Q - 154 : There is a clear cut division between the spheres of the legislature and the judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which one of the following propounds this doctrine?
A. Analytical jurisprudence
B. Historical jurisprudence
C. Sociological jurisprudence
D. Philosophical jurisprudence
Ans : A

Q - 155 : It is said that the next step forward in the long path of man's progress must be from jurisprudence to jurimetrics. In this context, what does jurimetrics signify? 1. Speculation about law 2. Scientific investigation of legal problems 3. Increasing awareness of the fruits of interdisciplinary co-operation 4. Relationship between law, economy and society Select the Answer using the codes given below:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 4
Ans : B

Q - 156 : In India, which one of the following is the real guiding factor for the State to meet social needs and for the establishment of new social order?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Preamble of the Constitution
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Distribution of Powers
Ans : C

Q - 157 : The Supreme court has interpreted the 'power of judicial review' as a basic feature of the Constitution. However, there is a Schedule to the Constitution, in which if a statute is specified, it cannot be

Q - ed in a court of law on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. Which one of the following is that Schedule?
A. Tenth Schedule
B. Eleventh Schedule
C. Ninth Schedule
D. Twelfth Schedule
Ans : C

Q - 158 : The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India : 1. Equality of status and opportunity 2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship 3. Justice-social, economic and political 4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual 5. Unity and integrity of the Nation Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the Preamble?
A. 5,1,2,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 3,1,2,5,4
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Ans : B

Q - 159 : Which of the following sections of citizens should be excluded from the benefits of reservations according to the principles of 'Creamy Layer' as propounded by the Supreme Court in Mandal Commission judgment? 1. Advanced sections among the other Backward Classes 2. Advanced sections among the Schedule Castes 3. Advanced sections among the Schedule Tribes 4. Advanced sections among the economically backward classes Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Ans : D

Q - 160 : Match List-l (Case) with List-ll (Subject Dealt with) and select the Answer from the codes given below the Lists: List - I (Case) List - II (Subject Dealth With) 1. L.Chandra Kumar Vs.Union Of india
B. T.M.
A. Pal Foundation Vs.State of Kerala
C. Randhir Singh Vs.Union Of India
D. S.Jagannath Vs.Union of India 1. Equal pay for equal work 2.Prawn Culture and Coastal Zone Regulations 3.Judicial Review 4. Rights of Minority Educational Institutions 5.Uniform civil code Codes :
A. A B C D 1 4 5 2
B. 3 2 1 4
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 1 2 5 4
Ans : C

Q - 161 : Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both the citizens and alliens?
A. The right to equality of opportunity in public employment
B. The right to six freedoms
C. Cultural and educational rights
D. The right to equality
Ans : D

Q - 162 : In which case has Supreme Court of India held that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?
A. Salem Advocate Bar Association. Tamil Nadu Vs. Union of India
B. Onkar Lal Bijoy Vs. Union of India
C. Murli S. Deora Vs. Union of India
D. Ramakrishnan Vs. State of Kerala
Ans : C

Q - 163 : Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
A. Organization of Village Panchayats.
B. Uniform Civil Code for citizens as well as non-citizens.
C. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.
D. Participation of workers in management of industries.
Ans : B

Q - 164 : Which one of the following statements is correct? Right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years is :
A. a fundamental right enforceable in a court of law
B. a fundamental duty
C. a directive Principle of State Policy
D. a fundamental right which, however can be enforced only if the State makes an enabling legislation
Ans : A

Q - 165 : For which of the following can special provisions be made under Article 15 of the Constitution of India? 1. Women and children 2. Scheduled Tribes 3. Economically backward classes 4. Socially backward classes Select the Answer using the codes given below:
A. 1,2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans : A

Q - 166 : Who appoints the judicial officers of the subordinate judiciary other then the district judges?
A. Union Public Service Commission
B. State Public Service Commission
C. Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in consultation with the High Court and State Public Service Commission
D. Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state
Ans : C

Q - 167 : Which one of the following statements is correct? On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill after its passing by each House of the Parliament, the President :
A. shall give his assent
B. may give his assent
C. may withhold his assent
D. may return the Bill for reconsi deration
Ans : A

Q - 168 : Through which provisions, does the Constitution of India explicitly prohibit racial discrimination in India?
A. Articles 14 and 17
B. Articles 17 and 23
C. Articles 15 and 16
D. Articles 17 only
Ans : C

Q - 169 : Consider the following Judgements of the Supreme Court which dealt with the appointment and transfer of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts: 1. S.P.Gupta Vs. Union of India 2. Sankal Chand Seth Vs. Union of India 3. In re Special Reference No. 1 of 1998 4. Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association Vs. Union of India Which one of the following is the correct chronological order in which the above judgements were delivered?
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,1,3,4
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 1,2,4,3
Ans : C

Q - 170 : Consider the following statements : The High Court has jurisdiction to : 1. punish for its contempt 2. tender advice on the legal

Q - referred to it by the Governor of the State 3. tender advice on a legal

Q - referred to it by the Governor of the State 4. issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2,3 and 4
Ans : A

Q - 171 : Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by the Governor of that State and approved by the President
B. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by the Chief Minister of that State
C. Union Public Service Commission cannot serve the needs of a State
D. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State simply on request of Governor. Approval of the President is not necessary
Ans : A

Q - 172 : The Amendment in Article 31 (c) which gave precedence to all Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights was declared ultra virus and void, in which one of the following cases?
A. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
B. N.K Rai Vs. Union of India
C. Wamam Rao Vs.Union of India
D. Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing Company Vs. Bharat Cocking Coal Lt
D.
Ans : A

Q - 173 : In which one of the following cases.did the Supreme Court rule that the principal of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of Fundamental Rights ?
A. State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati
B. Kasturi Lal Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
C. Murli S. Deora Vs. Union of India
D. Nilabati Behera Vs. State of Orissa
Ans : D

Q - 174 : The first Amendment to the Constitution made in 1951, made changes in relation to which of the following provisions? 1. Special provisions for advancement of socially and educationally backward classes 2. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule 3. Saving of certain laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles 4. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,3 and 4
Ans : A

Q - 175 : Which one of the following statements is correct? When the President issues a proclamation of Emergency :
A. all the fundamental Rights are automatically suspended
B. only Article 19 is automatically suspended The enforcement of all other Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President
C. only Article 19 is automatically suspende
D. The enforcement of all other Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 can suspended by an order of the President
D. Article 19 can be suspende
D. Other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
Ans : C

Q - 176 : In which List-| is the subject of preventive Detention enumerated ?
A. The Union List
B. The Concurrent List
C. The State List
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 177 : Which of the following are the matter covered under List-1 of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. Foreign loans 2. Atomic energy 3. Insurance 4 Public health Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2,3 and 4
Ans : B

Q - 178 : Consider the following statements : The executive power of the Union extends to giving of direction to a State in respect of : 1. construction and maintenance of means of communication of national or military importance 2. maintenance of law and order in that State 3. protection of railways within the State 4. protection of secular character of the country Which of the statements given above are correct ?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans : C

Q - 179 : Match List-| (Case) with List-|| (Subject) and select the Answer using the codes given below the Lists : List - I (Case) List -II (Subject)
A. State of Rajasthan Vs.G.Vjawla
B. K.T. Moopil Nair Vs.State Of Kerala
C. Gujarati University Vs.State of kerala
D. M.Karunanidhi Vs. Union of India 1. Harmonious construction 2. Colourable Legislation 3. Repugnancy 4. Pith and Substance 5. Incidental Powers Codes :
A. A B C D 1 3 5 2
B. 4 2 1 3
C. 1 2 5 3
D. 4 3 1 2
Ans : B

Q - 180 : A manufacturer of ginger beer had sold to a retailer, bottles of ginger beer in opaque bottles.The retailer sold one such bottle to 'A' who gave to his girl friend which contained the decomposed remains of a dead snail. The lady alleged of that she became seriously ill on consuming a portion of the contents from the said bottle. Which one of the following conclusions is correct as to the liability in law of torts?
A. The manufacturer of the ginger beer shall be liable for negligence
B. The manufacturer is not liable at all
C. The retailer will liable to the lady as he sold the bottle
D. The lady is not entitled to damages due to her contributory negligence
Ans : A

Q - 181 : Match List-| (Rules/Maxims) with List-|| (Cases) and Select the Answer from the codes given below the Lists : List-I (Rules/Maxims) List -II (Cases)
A. Neighbour Principle
B. Last Opportunity Rule
C.Res ipsa Loquitur
D. Doctrine Identification 1. Davies Vs. Mann 2. Byrne Vs.Boadle 3.Mathews Vs.London Street Tramways Co. 4. Donoghue Vs. Stevenson 5. Ashby Vs.White Codes :
A. A B C D 3 2 5 4
B. 4 1 2 3
C. 4 2 5 3
D. 3 1 2 4
Ans : B

Q - 182 : In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India give a ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the fundamental Rights?
A. State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati
B. Shyam Sunder Vs. State of Rajasthan
C. Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram jain Vs. State of U.P.
D. People Union for Democratic Rights Vs. State Bihar.
Ans : D

Q - 183 : Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
A. The principles of master's liability for the acts of a servant is based on the doctrine is respondent superior
B. The rule of master's liability for the acts of the servant is based on the maxim qui facit per alium facit per se
C. Master's liability for the torts of his servant is absolute and it is immaterial whether the tort was committed in the course of his employment or not
D. The rule of master's liability for the act of the servant is based on the capacity to pay, in most of the cases, servant is not financially in good position to pay the damages
Ans : C

Q - 184 : Where does vicarious liability generally arise from?
A. A contract of service
B. A contract for service
C. A contract of service as well as a contract for service
D. a wrongful act of the master
Ans : A

Q - 185 : An army truck driven by an army driver while going to leave army jawans on the station for enabling them to catch their home town, hit a pedestrian and killed him due to rash and negligent driving. Which one of the following is correct?
A. In this case vicarious liability is to be imposed on the Government of India.
B. In this case vicarious liability would be claimed under the defence of sovereign functions of the State.
C. In this case no liability will be imposed under the defence of inevitable accident
D. In this case both Government of India and the drive personally would be liable
Ans : A

Q - 186 : C, a stranger blocked the water pipes of a wash-basin and opened the tap. The wash-basin was otherwise in the control of the defendant
B. The overflowing water damaged the plaintiff goods. Thereupon the plaintiff filed a suit for damages against the defendant
B.
C.was not made a party. In the aforesaid suit which one of the following conclusions is correct?
A. The defendant was liable for damages to the plaintiff to the basis of rule of strict liability
B. The defendant was not liable for damages
C. The stranger C will have to pay damages
D. The plaintiff's suit will be decreed in his favour
Ans : D

Q - 187 : Due to the collapse of the clock-tower situated opposite the townhall in main bazaar of a city,a number of person die
D. The clock-tower belonged to the Municipal Corporation of the city and was exclusively under its control. It was 60 years old but the normal life of the structure of the building which had fallen could be 40 to 45 years having regard to the kind of material use
D. Mrs.X whose husband died due to the collapse of the clock-tower filed the suit for damages against the Municipal Corporation. Which one of the following maxims is applicable in the aforesaid case?
A. Damnum sine injuria
B. Injuria sine damno
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Volenti not fit injuric
Ans : C

Q - 188 : The defendants by digging a coalpit in the land intercepted the water which affected the plaintiffs well at a distance of about one mile. The plaintiff brought a suit for a damages against the defendants. Which one of the following maxims is applicable in the aforesaid case?
A. Damnum sine injuria
B. Injuria sine damno
C. Res ips loquitur
D. Volenti non fit injuria
Ans : A

Q - 189 : Who gave the 'Pigeon-hole' theory in definding tort?
A. Austin
B. Heuston
C. Salmond
D. Winfield
Ans : C

Q - 190 : A Magistrate in making a report to the superior casts an imputation on the character of a person Z in goods faith and for public goo
D. Which of the following defence is most appropriate?
A. justification
B. Fair comment
C. Absolute privilege
D. Qualified privilege
Ans : D

Q - 191 : In India and action of slander may be maintained without proof of special damage in some cases. Identify in which of the following cases proof of damage is necessary ?
A. Imputation of crime
B. Vulgar abusive language
C. Imputation of contagious disease
D. Imputation of lack of chastity to a woman
Ans : B

Q - 192 : When does the tort of condpiracy exist?
A. Two or more persons agree to commit and unlawful act
B. Two or more persons agree to commit some recognised tort
C. Two or more persons caused harm to the plaintiff
D. Two or more persons committed a concerted action to injure the plaintiff.
Ans : D

Q - 193 : During the scarcity of potatoes.long queues were made outside the defendant's shop who having a licence to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 kg of potatoes per ration car
D.The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neighbouring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant. Which one of the following decisions will be correct in this suit?
A. The defendant is liable for nuisance
B. The defendant is not liable for nuisance
C. The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in their favour
D. The defendant is liable to pay damages to the plaintiffs
Ans : B

Q - 194 : A theft had been committed in the defendant's house. He informed the police that he suspected the plaintiff for the same. Therefore the plaintiff was arrested by the police. A complaint was filed by the defendant but the plaintiff was subsequently discharged by the magistrate as the final report showed that there was no evidence connecting the plaintiff with the theft. The plaintiff filed a suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution. In the above case, which one of the following decisions is correct?
A. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the defendant
B. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the police
C. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from both
D. The plaintiff is not entitled to claim damages for malicious prosecution at all
Ans : D

Q - 195 : The branch of a tree growing on the defendant's land hung on the highway at a height of about 30 feet above the groun
D. In fine weather, the branch suddenly broke and fell upon the plaintiff's vehicle which was passing along the highway. For the damage to the vehicle, the plaintiff sues the defendant on the ground of nuisance. Which one of the following conclusions is correct in this suit ?
A. The defendant was liable for nuisance
B. The defendant was not liable for nuisance
C. The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability
D. The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in his favour
Ans : B

Q - 196 : The defendant had filed a complaint to the Magistrate against the plaintiff. The complaint was dismisse
D. The defendant moved the Sessions judge in appeal. He got himself examined in Sessions trial although he knew the charge was false and he was acting without reasonable and probable cause. His complaint was dismissed by the Session Judge. Thereupon the plaintiff filed a suit for malicious prosecution against the defendant. In the aforesaid case, which one of the following conclusion in correct ?
A. The defendant is liable for malicious prosecution
B. The defendant is not liable for malicious prosecution
C. The defendant is not liable to pay damages to the plaintiff
D. The plaintiff suit must be dismissed
Ans : A

Q - 197 : Which of the following is an element of strict liability in tort?
A. Duty to take care
B. Fault
C. Breach of duty
D. No-fault
Ans : D

Q - 198 : Section 300 of the IPC speaks of situations in which if a murder is committed, then it is treated as 'culpable homicide not amounting to murder.' Which one of the following situations is not covered under S.300, IPC?
A. Exercise of the right of private defence
B. Exercise of legal
C. Exercise of legal powers
D. Sudden fight
Ans : C

Q - 199 : A lady wishing to get a railway ticket, finding a crowd at the ticket window at the station, asked 'X', who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him over the money for the same, 'X' took the money and instead of getting the ticket run away with the money. What offence has been committed by 'X' ?
A. No offense
B. Offence of criminal breach of trust
C. Offence criminal misappropriation
D. Offence of theft
Ans : B

Q - 200 : Which of the following elements constitute criminal misappropriation of property ? 

1. Movable property belonging to a person other than the accused 

2. Any property belonging to a person other than the accused 

3. The accused must have misappropriated the property to his own use 

4. There must be dishonest intention on the part of the accused Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Ans : B

1 - 100 | MCQ | Question and Answer in LAW Exam | AIBE | APP | Judiciary exams

Q - 1 : Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Bailable offence
B. Non-Bailable offence
C. Cognizable offence
D. Non-cognizable offence
Ans : A

Q - 2 : Under section 138 of the Act, territorial jurisdiction does not arise on the following places
A. Where cheque is issued
B. In the local limit where the cheque is presented in the bank
C. Where the cheque is dishonored by the bank
D. From where the notice to pay the amount is issued
Ans : D

Q - 3 : What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’?
A. There must be an allegation in the complaint
B. The allegation must be about the commission of an offence
C. The complaint must be made to the magistrate
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 4 : Which is not a negotiable instrument?
A. Bond
B. Promissory note
C. Bill of Exchange
D. Cheque
Ans : A

Q - 5 : Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines
A. Metropolitan Area
B. Assistant Public Procsecutors
C. Special Judicial Magistrate
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 6 : Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.
A. 140
B. 150
C. 147
D. 211
Ans : C

Q - 7 : What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the court?
A. Summons
B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Attachment of property
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 8 : Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines
A. Non-Bailable offence
B. Cognizable offence
C. Non-cognizable offence
D. Both B and C
Ans : B

Q - 9 : What are the kinds of warrant?
A. Bailable warrants
B. Non-Bailable warrants
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 10 : What is the difference between summon and warrant?
A. Issuing of summon is a primary stage. Generally warrants are issued if the attendance of an offender cannot be procured through summons
B. A summon is issued at the first instance in summons cases as well as in a warrant case. But warrant cannot be issued at the first instance in summons cases.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 11 : Which condition/s must be satisfied before issuing a proclamation?
A. A summon should have been legally issued against a person.
B. A warrant should have been legally issued against a person
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 12 : What are the important condition/s necessary for initiation of proceedings under section 107?
A. Formation of opinion by magistrate
B. Existence of sufficient ground for proceeding
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 13 : Public nuisance may be defined as
A. An obstruction, risk or injury to the life
B. A risk or injury to health
C. An obstruction to the comfort or convenience of public at large
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 14 : Section ………… of the code of the criminal procedure deals with the circumstances when a conditional order for removal of nuisance can be passe
A. 131
B. 133
C. 139
D. 143
Ans : B

Q - 15 : Which condition/s should be fulfilled to constitute the Frist Information Report (F.I.R.)?
A. What is convency must be information
B. That information should be related to the commission of an offence on the face of it.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 16 : A ……….. is not entitled to maintenance under section 125 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973.
A. Wife unable to maintain herself
B. Divorced wife (not remarried)
C. Minor daughter
D. Divorced wife remarried
Ans : D

Q - 17 : Inherent powers under section 482 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973 can be exercised by
A. Judicial Magistrate first class
B. Sessions Judge
C. High Court
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans : C

Q - 18 : Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?
A. Section 149
B. Section 154
C. Section 155
D. Section 200
Ans : B

Q - 19 : How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
Ans : D

Q - 20 : The Supreme Court’s Judge retries at the age of
A. 58 years
B. 70 years
C. 62 years
D. 65 years
Ans : D

Q - 21 : Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by
A. President of India
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. None of the above
Ans : C

Q - 22 : In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’?
A. Planning Commission
B. National Development Council
C. Central Cabinet
D. Parliament
Ans : B

Q - 23 : Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
A. Finance Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. None of the above
Ans : B

Q - 24 : In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India?
A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1975
D. Never
Ans : D

Q - 25 : The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San Francisco on
A. June 26, 1945
B. August 15, 1943
C. January 26, 1946
D. December 30, 1941
Ans : A

Q - 26 : How Many members are there in the Security Council?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15
Ans : D

Q - 27 : The Procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in
A. Article 124(4)
B. Article 124 (5)
C. Article 125
D. Airtcle 126
Ans : A

Q - 28 : In International Court of Justice, there are
A. President and 15 other members
B. President, Vice-President and 15 other members
C. President, Vice-President and 14 other members
D. President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : D

Q - 29 : Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between
A. The Prime Minister and the President
B. Legislature and Exceutive
C. Exceutive and Judiciary
D. Centre and States
Ans : D

Q - 30 : A decree may be executed by
A. Tehsildar
B. Collector
C. District Judge
D. Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : D

Q - 31 : Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’?
A. Section 2(4)
B. Section 2(14)
C. Section 2 (6)
D. Section 2(12)
Ans : D

Q - 32 : Pleading has been defined in
A. Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
B. Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
C. Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
D. Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : A

Q - 33 : Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
B. Metropolitant Magistrate
C. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
D. 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
Ans : D

Q - 34 : Which one of the following suits is not of a civil nature?
A. Suits relating to rights to property
B. Suit for rents
C. Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
D. Suits against dismissals from service
Ans : C

Q - 35 : In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of –
A. One-fourth
B. One-Third
C. Two-third
D. One-half
Ans : C

Q - 36 : Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of five, how many of them need to be proved?
A. Five
B. Three
C. One
D. Two
Ans : C

Q - 37 : Promissory estoppel is sometimes spoken of as a substitute of –
A. Novation
B. Quasi-contract
C. Consideration
D. Coercion
Ans : B

Q - 38 : X contracted with a tent house for erecting a shamiana for performing the marriage of his daughter. On the day of marriage, a curfew was clamped in the area preventing the celebration of the marriage. The shamiana owner claims the charges agreed to be paid by X. In the light of the above, which one of the following is correct?
A. X has to pay the contracted charges
B. X need not pay the agreed charges but only reasonable charges
C. X can require the State to bear the claim for famages
D. X need not pay anything as the celebration of the marriage was impossible on account of the curfew
Ans : D

Q - 39 : What is/are the characteristic/s of a share?
A. A share is an interest of a shareholder in the company
B. It is a bundle of rights and obligations of shareholder of the company
C. These rights and obligations are regulated by the articles of the company
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 40 : Which companies are required to have their own articles and get them registered along with the memorandum?
A. Unlimited companies
B. Companies limited by guarantee
C. Private company limited by shares
D. All Above
Ans : D

Q - 41 : In which case, the acts of a company are said to be ultra vires:
A. Acts which do not fall within the main objects of the company
B. Acts which do not fall within the objects incidental or ancillary to the main object of the company
C. Acts done after the Main objects become impossible
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 42 : The memorandum of a company must contain
A. Name and place clause
B. Object and Liability clause
C. Capital clause and subscribers’ clause
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 43 : What are the main features of memorandum of association?
A. It is a fundamental document or charter of the company
B. It is essential for every company to prepare memorandum for its registration
C. It should be originally frame
D. It cannot be adopte
D. It contains objects of the company
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 44 : What are the necessary steps for registration of a company?
A. Preliminary steps
B. Delivery of documents by the Registrar
C. Scrutiny of documents by the Registrar and obtaining certificate of incorporation
D. Above all
Ans : D

Q - 45 : According to …………., “The memorandum of association of a company is its charter and defines the limitations of the company established under the Act”.
A. Lord Justice Cairns
B. Lord Justics Bowen
C. Palmer
D. Ramaiya
Ans : A

Q - 46 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of ownership?
A. Government companies
B. Non-government companies
C. Association not for profit or charitable company
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 47 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of control?
A. Holding company
B. Subsidiary company
C. One man company
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 48 : The companies with limited liability may be
A. Companies limited by shares
B. Companies limited by guarantee
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 49 : For which purpose, the Central Government may appoint inspectors to investigate and report on the matters relating to the company.
A. For determining the true persons who are or have been financially interested in the success or failure of the company
B. For determining the true persons who are or have been able to control or materially influence the policy of the Company
C. For Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 50 : According to ……… “A company is an artificial person created by law, having separate entity, with a perpetual succession and common seal”.
A. Lord Justice Lindley
B. Prof. Haney
C. Justice Marshall
D. Gower, L.
C.
B.
Ans : B

Q - 51 : What are the merits of a Negotiable instrument ?
A. Unlimited number of endorsements
B. No notice of transfer/endorsement needed
C. A negotiable instrument is valid only when it is for a certain sum of money
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 52 : Which of the following is/are negotiable instrument/s?
A. Promissory note
B. Bill of Exchange
C. Cheque
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 53 : What is/are the Essential/s of a promissory note?
A. A promissory note must be in writing
B. There is no prescribed preform for promissory note
C. It must contain an express promise to pay
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 54 : ………… can make a promissory note payable to bearer.
A. RBI
B. Central Government
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 55 : The main parties to a bill of exchange are
A. Drawer
B. Drawee
C. Acceptor
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 56 : The person who is directed to pay the bill of exchange is called
A. Holder
B. Drawee
C. Payee
D. Acceptor
Ans : B

Q - 57 : The Transfer of property Act, 1882 covers
A. Movable Property
B. Immovable property
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C

Q - 58 : An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 means
A. A Negotiable Instrument
B. A Transferable Instrument
C. A Non-Testamentary Instrument
D. A will
Ans : C

Q - 59 : Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favor of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called
A. Conditional Transfer
B. Transfer by Interest
C. Absolute Transfer
D. Contingent Transfer
Ans : D

Q - 60 : Which of the following is not an actionable claim?
A. Right to a Provident Fund Account
B. Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promises succeed in L.L.
B. examination
C. Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promise marries a particular woman
D. Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
Ans : D

Q - 61 : A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by
A. Oral agreement
B. Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
C. Simple instrument
D. Only by a registered instrument
Ans : D

Q - 62 : Universal donee is
A. Not liable for any debt or liability
B. Donee is personally liable for all debts to liabilities existing at the time of gift
C. Donee is only liable for half of the liabilities
D. Donee is only liable for the one-third of liabilities
Ans : B

Q - 63 : When did the Banking Regulation Act come into effect ?
A. 16th January 1949
B. 16th April 1949
C. 16th March 1949
D. 16th February 1949
Ans : C

Q - 64 : Lease of immovable property determines
A. By efflux of time. Limited thereby
B. By implied surrender
C. By the happening of such event, where the interest of the leassor in the property, terminates on the happening of that event
D. When the lessee becomes insolvent
Ans : D

Q - 65 : An instrument as defined under section 3 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 means:
A. A Negotiable Instrument
B. A Transferable Instrument
C. A Non-testamentary Instrument
D. A will
Ans : C

Q - 66 : In case of “Part performance” what is not necessary with a transferee?
A. Possession
B. Contract for consideration
C. Notice to transferor
D. Readiness on his part
Ans : C

Q - 67 : What is the rank of India in the Foreign Exchange Reserve ?
A. 15th
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 1st
Ans : C

Q - 68 : What may be transferred?
A. Spec Successions
B. A right to sue
C. A right of re-entry to the owner for breach of a subsequent condition
D. A right to future maintenance
Ans : C

Q - 69 : A mortgage by deposit of debts is called
A. Anomalous mortgage
B. English mortgage
C. Equitable mortgage
D. Usufruct by mortgage
Ans : C

Q - 70 : What kind of transfer may be made orally?
A. Gift of immovable property
B. Transfer of actionable claim
C. Sale of immovable property of value upward Rs.100
D. Surrender of lease
Ans : D

Q - 71 : Whether simple mortgage must always be registered?
A. Yes
B. If value of property is more than Rs. 100
C. Registration not necessary
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 72 : What are the essentials of a valid Gift?
A. There must be a donor
B. A donee
C. A proper object of gift and an acceptance by the donee
D. All of these
Ans : D

Q - 73 : In case of usufructuary mortgage the mortgages is placed in possession who has a right to receive the rent and other profits till
A. Mortgage money is paid
B. Contract is rescinded
C. Period of thirty years
D. Period of 99 years
Ans : A

Q - 74 : For applicability of doctrine of List pendants, the property would be
A. Movable
B. Immovable
C. Both Movable and immovable
D. None of these
Ans : D

Q - 75 : In which of the following cases, a transfer of immovable property can be made without writing?
A. Sale of property of a value more than Rs.100
B. Lease for a term of 11 months
C. Exchange
D. Actionable claim
Ans : B

Q - 76 : Whether a transfer can be made in favour of an unborn person?
A. Yes, by machinery of trust
B. Yes
C. Guardian has got to be appointed first
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 77 : Which of the following transfers is valid?
A. An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs. 99
B. An unregistered gift of immovable property of the value of Rs. 99
C. An oral lease of immovable property from year to year
D. An oral assignment of debts
Ans : A

Q - 78 : A right to obtain a decree from the court that the mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called
A. A right for foreclosure
B. A right for claim
C. A right for redemption
D. A right for sale
Ans : A

Q - 79 : Where immovable property is transferred for consideration by persons having distinct interest therein, but their interests in the property are of equal value, the transferor is
A. Entitled to get equal share in the consideration
B. Entitled to get unequal share in the consideration
C. Entitled to get equal share subject to further transfers in future
D. None of the above
Ans : A

Q - 80 : In case of a gift if the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Revocable
D. Irrevocable
Ans : B

Q - 81 : Sale is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price
A. Paid
B. Promised
C. Part paid and part promised
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Q - 82 : Under section 3 of the transfer of property Act the following does not amount to notice
A. Registration where the instrument is compulsorily registrable
B. Registration where the instrument is not compulsorily registrable
C. Possession
D. Notice to agent
Ans : B

Q - 83 : ’A’ gives a lakh of rupees to ‘B’ reserving to himself with B’s assent, the right to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of lakh. The gift
A. Is wholly void
B. Is invalid
C. Holds goods as to Rs. 90,000
D. In onerous
Ans : C

Q - 84 : What kind of property is transferable?
A. Right to re-entry
B. Public office
C. Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
D. Pension
Ans : C

Q - 85 : ‘A’ has let his house at a rent of Rs. 100 Payable on the last date of each month. ‘A’ sells house to ‘B’ on the 15th of June. On 30th June what will be apportionment?
A. ‘A’ will get Rs. 100
B. ‘B’ will get Rs. 100
C. Rs. 50 to ‘A’ and Rs. 50 to ‘B’
D. The tenant will be exempted from payment of rent of this month
Ans : C

Q - 86 : In absence of contract or local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property shall be deemed to be
A. Month to month
B. Bimonthly
C. Year to year
D. Bi-annual
Ans : C

Q - 87 : Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context to ‘transfer of property?
A. It means an act by which a living person conveys property
B. He conveys property in present or in future
C. He conveys property to one or more other living person
D. He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living person
Ans : D

Q - 88 : How many types of mortgages are there in section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Ans : C

Q - 89 : A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by
A. One month
B. Six month’s
C. Three month’s
D. Sixty days’ notice expiring with the end of a year of tenancy
Ans : B

Q - 90 : What is not required in “Gift”?
A. Doner and donee
B. Consideration
C. Moveable or immovable property
D. Transfer and acceptance
Ans : B

Q - 91 : “Immovable Property” does not include timber
A. True
B. False
C. Till it is rooted in the earth
D. Only the branches of timber does not include in immovable property
Ans : A

Q - 92 : “Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession”.
A. Wrong
B. Right can accrue only after payment of full consideration
C. Right
D. Delivery of possession is not necessary
Ans : C

Q - 93 : “Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally”.
A. False
B. Transfer can only be made by writing
C. With the consent of parties oral transfer can be done
D. True
Ans : D

Q - 94 : Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally
A. False
B. Transfer can only be made by writing
C. With the consent of parties oral transfer can be done
D. True
Ans : D

Q - 95 : Who is not a citizen by domicile?
A. Those who are born in the territory of India
B. Those whose either mother or father was born in the territory of India
C. Those who have been ordinarily residing in the territory of India after of Constitution of India, due to his work in India.
D. Who has been ordinarly resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding commencement of Constitution of India
Ans : C

Q - 96 : Under article 227 of the Constitution who has superintendence over all the courts and tribunals located in the territory to which it exercises jurisdiction?
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court
Ans : D

Q - 97 : Which is the latest case wherein Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court has reviewed the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution?
A. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab
B. Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Rajnarayan
C. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
D. Keshavanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Ans : C

Q - 98 : Which cannot be transferred?
A. Mere right to sue on the basis of agreement to sell
B. Right to receive arrears of rent
C. Right to recover detrital amount
D. Right to receive provident funds by will
Ans : A

Q - 99 : For part performance of the contract which is not an essential ingredient?
A. Contract to transfer immovable property
B. Contract is in writing and signed by transferor or on his behalf
C. Transferee is in possession of the property
D. Transferee has paid full consideration
Ans : D

Q - 100 : Legal validity of Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and FI Act 1993 was upheld by 3 judge bench of Honourable Supreme Court in _________ .
A. UOI v. Delhi High court bar Association
B. Horizon Flora India Lt
D. V. Asset Reconstruction Co. India Ltd
C. Baleshwar Dayal Jaiswal v. Bank of India
D. Vijay Laghu Udyog v. Punjab National Bank
Ans : A